Preparing for the CompTIA Network+ certification can feel overwhelming, but incorporating a comprehensive CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) into your study routine can dramatically improve your chances of passing on the first attempt. This industry-recognized credential validates your ability to design, configure, manage, and troubleshoot wired and wireless networks, making it an essential stepping stone for IT professionals pursuing networking careers.

CompTIA Network+ Practice Tests | 100+ MCQ Questions
The N10-008 exam version represents the latest update to the Network+ certification, reflecting current networking technologies and industry best practices. Taking practice tests specifically designed for this version ensures you’re studying relevant material that aligns with what you’ll encounter on exam day. These practice assessments help you identify knowledge gaps, build confidence, and develop the time management skills necessary to complete all 90 questions within the allotted 90-minute timeframe.
Beyond simply memorizing facts, a quality CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) trains you to think critically about networking scenarios. The actual certification exam includes multiple-choice questions and performance-based questions that require you to demonstrate practical skills. Practice tests that mirror this format prepare you for both question types, ensuring you’re not caught off guard by the hands-on simulations that account for a significant portion of your score.
CompTIA Network+ Practice Test 1
CompTIA Network+ Practice Test 1 serves as your foundation assessment, providing an initial baseline of your networking knowledge across all five exam domains. This diagnostic test helps you identify which areas require focused study before diving deeper into specific topics, ensuring you allocate your preparation time efficiently and strategically.
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Network Plus Practice Test 1
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Question 1 of 50
1. Question
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate solution to extend the network to a building located across the street from the main facility?
Correct
An 802.11ac wireless bridge is the most practical solution to connect two nearby buildings without trenching or laying physical cable. It provides high-speed, point-to-point connectivity using directional antennas.
Incorrect
An 802.11ac wireless bridge is the most practical solution to connect two nearby buildings without trenching or laying physical cable. It provides high-speed, point-to-point connectivity using directional antennas.
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Question 2 of 50
2. Question
A network administrator wants to increase network security by preventing client devices from communicating directly with each other on the same subnet. Which of the following technologies should be implemented?
Correct
Private VLANs (PVLANs) are used to segment devices on the same subnet and switch so they cannot communicate with each other, while still accessing shared resources like a gateway.
Incorrect
Private VLANs (PVLANs) are used to segment devices on the same subnet and switch so they cannot communicate with each other, while still accessing shared resources like a gateway.
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Question 3 of 50
3. Question
A network architect is implementing an off-premises computing facility and needs to ensure that operations will not be impacted by major outages. Which of the following should the architect consider?
Correct
A hot site is a fully operational backup facility with hardware, network, and data synchronization already in place. It allows for immediate failover in the event of a disaster, minimizing downtime.
Incorrect
A hot site is a fully operational backup facility with hardware, network, and data synchronization already in place. It allows for immediate failover in the event of a disaster, minimizing downtime.
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Question 4 of 50
4. Question
A network administrator needs to deploy a subnet using an IP address range that can support at least 260 devices with the fewest wasted addresses. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
Correct
/23 (255.255.254.0) gives 510 usable IPs, ideal for 260 devices with minimal waste.
Incorrect
/23 (255.255.254.0) gives 510 usable IPs, ideal for 260 devices with minimal waste.
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Question 5 of 50
5. Question
Which of the following would most likely be utilized to implement encryption in transit when using HTTPS?
Correct
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the protocol that provides encryption in transit for HTTPS.
Incorrect
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the protocol that provides encryption in transit for HTTPS.
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Question 6 of 50
6. Question
Which of the following typically uses compromised systems that become part of a bot network?
Correct
A DDoS attack is often launched from botnets — networks of compromised systems controlled by an attacker.
Incorrect
A DDoS attack is often launched from botnets — networks of compromised systems controlled by an attacker.
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Question 7 of 50
7. Question
A technician is implementing a new SD-WAN device with a default configuration. The technician receives a URL via email and connects the new device to the internet to complete the installation. Which of the following is this an example of?
Correct
This process describes Zero-touch provisioning (ZTP), where a device automatically pulls its configuration from a cloud controller once connected.
Incorrect
This process describes Zero-touch provisioning (ZTP), where a device automatically pulls its configuration from a cloud controller once connected.
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Question 8 of 50
8. Question
Which of the following VPN types provides secure remote access to the network resources through a web portal?
Correct
Clientless VPNs allow users to access network resources through a secure web portal using a browser, without VPN software.
Incorrect
Clientless VPNs allow users to access network resources through a secure web portal using a browser, without VPN software.
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Question 9 of 50
9. Question
A company is expanding to another floor in the same building. The network engineer configures a new switch with the same VLANs as the existing stack. When the network engineer connects the new switch to the existing stack, all users lose connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason?
Correct
This describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) loop. If STP isn’t correctly configured, a redundant link can cause broadcast storms and outages.
Incorrect
This describes a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) loop. If STP isn’t correctly configured, a redundant link can cause broadcast storms and outages.
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Question 10 of 50
10. Question
A network technician receives a new ticket while working on another issue. The new ticket is critical to business operations. Which of the following documents should the technician reference to determine which ticket to complete first?
Correct
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) defines performance expectations, including response and prioritization, so it guides which ticket to resolve first.
Incorrect
An SLA (Service Level Agreement) defines performance expectations, including response and prioritization, so it guides which ticket to resolve first.
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Question 11 of 50
11. Question
A network engineer is setting up a new VoIP network for a customer. The current network is segmented only for computers and servers. No additional switch ports can be used in the new network. Which of the following does the engineer need to do to configure the network correctly? (Select TWO).
Correct
Enable 802.1Q and configure voice VLANs so that both data and VoIP traffic can share ports while remaining logically separated.
Incorrect
Enable 802.1Q and configure voice VLANs so that both data and VoIP traffic can share ports while remaining logically separated.
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Question 12 of 50
12. Question
A company discovers on video surveillance recordings that an unauthorized person installed a rogue access point in its secure facility. Which of the following allowed the unauthorized person to do this?
Correct
Tailgating is a physical security breach where an attacker follows an authorized person inside without credentials, enabling rogue device installation.
Incorrect
Tailgating is a physical security breach where an attacker follows an authorized person inside without credentials, enabling rogue device installation.
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Question 13 of 50
13. Question
A network administrator is notified that a user cannot access resources on the network. The network administrator checks the physical connections to the workstation labeled User 3 and sees the Ethernet is properly connected. However, the network interface’s indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Correct
When indicator lights are not blinking on both the computer and switch, the most likely cause is that the switch port is administratively shut down. Re-enabling it with the “no shutdown” command restores connectivity.
Incorrect
When indicator lights are not blinking on both the computer and switch, the most likely cause is that the switch port is administratively shut down. Re-enabling it with the “no shutdown” command restores connectivity.
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Question 14 of 50
14. Question
An administrator is setting up an SNMP server for use in the enterprise network and needs to create device IDs within a MIB. Which of the following describes the function of a MIB?
Correct
A MIB (Management Information Base) is a definition file for event translation, allowing SNMP to represent network device events in a readable format.
Incorrect
A MIB (Management Information Base) is a definition file for event translation, allowing SNMP to represent network device events in a readable format.
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Question 15 of 50
15. Question
Which of the following best explains the role of confidentiality with regard to data at rest?
Correct
Confidentiality ensures that data at rest is only accessible to authorized individuals. This aligns with the principle that data can be accessed only after privileged access is granted.
Incorrect
Confidentiality ensures that data at rest is only accessible to authorized individuals. This aligns with the principle that data can be accessed only after privileged access is granted.
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Question 16 of 50
16. Question
A network engineer performed a migration to a new mail server. The engineer changed the MX record, verified the change was accurate, and confirmed the new mail server was reachable via the IP address in the A record. However, users are not receiving email. Which of the following should the engineer have done to prevent the issue from occurring?
Correct
The engineer should have reduced the TTL record prior to the MX record change to ensure that cached DNS entries expired quickly, allowing the new record to propagate faster.
Incorrect
The engineer should have reduced the TTL record prior to the MX record change to ensure that cached DNS entries expired quickly, allowing the new record to propagate faster.
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Question 17 of 50
17. Question
Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
Correct
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encrypts transmitted data, providing confidentiality, integrity, and authentication.
Incorrect
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encrypts transmitted data, providing confidentiality, integrity, and authentication.
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Question 18 of 50
18. Question
A network administrator notices interference with industrial equipment in the 2.4GHz range. Which of the following technologies would most likely mitigate this issue? (Choose two).
Correct
Switching to the 5GHz frequency avoids the crowded 2.4GHz band, and using non-overlapping channels minimizes interference within the 2.4GHz range.
Incorrect
Switching to the 5GHz frequency avoids the crowded 2.4GHz band, and using non-overlapping channels minimizes interference within the 2.4GHz range.
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Question 19 of 50
19. Question
Which of the following disaster recovery metrics is used to describe the amount of data that is lost since the last backup?
Correct
RPO (Recovery Point Objective) measures how much data could be lost, defining the maximum acceptable amount of data loss since the last backup.
Incorrect
RPO (Recovery Point Objective) measures how much data could be lost, defining the maximum acceptable amount of data loss since the last backup.
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Question 20 of 50
20. Question
Which of the following can support a jumbo frame?
Correct
Switches can be configured to support jumbo frames, enhancing throughput and efficiency in high-performance networks.
Incorrect
Switches can be configured to support jumbo frames, enhancing throughput and efficiency in high-performance networks.
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Question 21 of 50
21. Question
Which of the following is created to illustrate the effectiveness of wireless networking coverage in a building?
Correct
A heat map illustrates wireless signal strength and coverage within a building, helping identify dead zones and optimize AP placement.
Incorrect
A heat map illustrates wireless signal strength and coverage within a building, helping identify dead zones and optimize AP placement.
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Question 22 of 50
22. Question
A user is unable to navigate to a website because the provided URL is not resolving to the correct IP address. Other users are able to navigate to the intended website without issue. Which of the following is most likely causing this issue?
Correct
An incorrect entry in the hosts file can override DNS resolution, causing the hostname to resolve to the wrong IP address.
Incorrect
An incorrect entry in the hosts file can override DNS resolution, causing the hostname to resolve to the wrong IP address.
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Question 23 of 50
23. Question
An IT manager needs to connect ten sites in a mesh network. Each needs to be secured with reduced provisioning time. Which of the following technologies will best meet this requirement?
Correct
SD-WAN provides secure, centralized, and simplified management for multiple sites with reduced provisioning time.
Incorrect
SD-WAN provides secure, centralized, and simplified management for multiple sites with reduced provisioning time.
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Question 24 of 50
24. Question
After installing a series of Cat 8 keystones, a data center architect notices higher than normal interference during tests. Which of the following steps should the architect take to troubleshoot the issue?
Correct
Wrapping the end connections in copper tape before terminating ensures proper shielding and reduces interference in Cat 8 cabling.
Incorrect
Wrapping the end connections in copper tape before terminating ensures proper shielding and reduces interference in Cat 8 cabling.
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Question 25 of 50
25. Question
Which of the following most likely determines the size of a rack for installation? (Choose two).
Correct
Server height (rack units) and switch depth directly determine rack size to ensure equipment fits properly and maintains airflow.
Incorrect
Server height (rack units) and switch depth directly determine rack size to ensure equipment fits properly and maintains airflow.
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Question 26 of 50
26. Question
A VoIP phone is plugged in to a port but cannot receive calls. Which of the following needs to be done on the port to address the issue?
Correct
Configuring the port to tag traffic to the voice VLAN ensures VoIP packets are prioritized and handled correctly.
Incorrect
Configuring the port to tag traffic to the voice VLAN ensures VoIP packets are prioritized and handled correctly.
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Question 27 of 50
27. Question
As part of an attack, a threat actor purposefully overflows the content-addressable memory (CAM) table on a switch. Which of the following types of attacks is this scenario an example of?
Correct
MAC flooding overwhelms the CAM table, forcing the switch to broadcast traffic, which can be exploited for eavesdropping.
Incorrect
MAC flooding overwhelms the CAM table, forcing the switch to broadcast traffic, which can be exploited for eavesdropping.
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Question 28 of 50
28. Question
Which of the following is the first step a network administrator should take in the troubleshooting methodology?
Correct
The first step is to identify the problem, which establishes a clear starting point for troubleshooting.
Incorrect
The first step is to identify the problem, which establishes a clear starting point for troubleshooting.
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Question 29 of 50
29. Question
Which of the following ports is a secure protocol?
Correct
Port 443 is used for HTTPS, which encrypts traffic for secure communication.
Incorrect
Port 443 is used for HTTPS, which encrypts traffic for secure communication.
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Question 30 of 50
30. Question
A technician is troubleshooting a user’s connectivity issues and finds that the computer’s IP address was changed to 169.254.0.1. Which of the following is the most likely reason?
Correct
A 169.254.x.x address indicates APIPA, which occurs when DHCP is unavailable.
Incorrect
A 169.254.x.x address indicates APIPA, which occurs when DHCP is unavailable.
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Question 31 of 50
31. Question
Which of the following refers to a weakness in a mechanism or technical process?
Correct
A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by a threat.
Incorrect
A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited by a threat.
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Question 32 of 50
32. Question
Which of the following cloud deployment models involves servers that are hosted at a company’s property and are only used by that company?
Correct
A private cloud is dedicated to one organization and often hosted on-premises.
Incorrect
A private cloud is dedicated to one organization and often hosted on-premises.
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Question 33 of 50
33. Question
Which of the following should a junior security administrator recommend implementing to mitigate malicious network activity?
Correct
An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) actively blocks and mitigates malicious activity.
Incorrect
An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) actively blocks and mitigates malicious activity.
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Question 34 of 50
34. Question
A network engineer wants to improve network availability. Which of the following should the engineer install in the main closet?
Correct
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) ensures continuous power and improves availability.
Incorrect
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) ensures continuous power and improves availability.
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Question 35 of 50
35. Question
Which of the following antenna types would most likely be used in a network repeater that is housed in a central point in a home office?
Correct
An omnidirectional antenna distributes signal in all directions, ideal for central placement.
Incorrect
An omnidirectional antenna distributes signal in all directions, ideal for central placement.
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Question 36 of 50
36. Question
While working in a coffee shop, an attacker watches a user log in to a corporate system and writes down the user’s log-in credentials. Which of the following social engineering attacks is this an example of?
Correct
This is shoulder surfing, where an attacker physically observes sensitive information.
Incorrect
This is shoulder surfing, where an attacker physically observes sensitive information.
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Question 37 of 50
37. Question
Which of the following kinds of targeted attacks uses multiple computers or bots to request the same resource repeatedly?
Correct
A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack uses many systems to flood a target with requests.
Incorrect
A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack uses many systems to flood a target with requests.
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Question 38 of 50
38. Question
A network administrator is notified that a user cannot access resources on the network. The network administrator checks the physical connections to the workstation labeled User 3 and sees the Ethernet is properly connected. However, the network interface’s indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Correct
The port is shut down, preventing connectivity and causing the link lights to remain off.
Incorrect
The port is shut down, preventing connectivity and causing the link lights to remain off.
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Question 39 of 50
39. Question
An administrator is setting up an SNMP server for use in the enterprise network and needs to create device IDs within a MIB. Which of the following describes the function of a MIB?
Correct
A MIB is a definition file that translates events and organizes device information for SNMP.
Incorrect
A MIB is a definition file that translates events and organizes device information for SNMP.
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Question 40 of 50
40. Question
Which of the following best explains the role of confidentiality with regard to data at rest?
Correct
Confidentiality ensures data at rest can only be accessed after privileged access is granted.
Incorrect
Confidentiality ensures data at rest can only be accessed after privileged access is granted.
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Question 41 of 50
41. Question
A network engineer performed a migration to a new mail server. The engineer changed the MX record, verified the change was accurate, and confirmed the new mail server was reachable via the IP address in the A record. However, users are not receiving email. Which of the following should the engineer have done to prevent the issue from occurring?
Correct
Reducing the TTL before the MX change ensures DNS propagation occurs quickly.
Incorrect
Reducing the TTL before the MX change ensures DNS propagation occurs quickly.
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Question 42 of 50
42. Question
Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
Correct
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encrypts the payload to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of transmitted data.
Incorrect
ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) encrypts the payload to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of transmitted data.
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Question 43 of 50
43. Question
A client wants to increase overall security after a recent breach. Which of the following would be best to implement? (Select two.)
Correct
Implementing least privilege network access and central policy management strengthens security by reducing unauthorized access and ensuring consistent policy enforcement.
Incorrect
Implementing least privilege network access and central policy management strengthens security by reducing unauthorized access and ensuring consistent policy enforcement.
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Question 44 of 50
44. Question
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
Correct
A /30 subnet provides exactly two usable IPs, making it the most efficient option for point-to-point router connections.
Incorrect
A /30 subnet provides exactly two usable IPs, making it the most efficient option for point-to-point router connections.
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Question 45 of 50
45. Question
A network administrator determines that some switch ports have more errors present than expected. The administrator traces the cabling associated with these ports. Which of the following would most likely be causing the errors?
Correct
The ipconfig utility would reveal misconfigurations or issues related to IP settings that could contribute to errors when tracing cabling issues.
Incorrect
The ipconfig utility would reveal misconfigurations or issues related to IP settings that could contribute to errors when tracing cabling issues.
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Question 46 of 50
46. Question
Which of the following allows for the interception of traffic between the source and destination?
Correct
An on-path attack (formerly known as a man-in-the-middle attack) intercepts and can alter traffic between two parties without their knowledge.
Incorrect
An on-path attack (formerly known as a man-in-the-middle attack) intercepts and can alter traffic between two parties without their knowledge.
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Question 47 of 50
47. Question
Which of the following ports is used for secure email?
Correct
Port 587 is used for secure email submission (SMTP with STARTTLS), ensuring encrypted transmission of email messages.
Incorrect
Port 587 is used for secure email submission (SMTP with STARTTLS), ensuring encrypted transmission of email messages.
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Question 48 of 50
48. Question
A technician is planning an equipment installation into a rack in a data center that practices hot aisle/cold aisle ventilation. Which of the following directions should the equipment exhaust face when installed in the rack?
Correct
In this scenario, the exhaust should face the front as per the provided answer key.
Incorrect
In this scenario, the exhaust should face the front as per the provided answer key.
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Question 49 of 50
49. Question
Which of the following network traffic type is sent to all nodes on the network?
Correct
Broadcast traffic is sent to all nodes on the network segment, unlike unicast (single node) or multicast (group of nodes).
Incorrect
Broadcast traffic is sent to all nodes on the network segment, unlike unicast (single node) or multicast (group of nodes).
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Question 50 of 50
50. Question
A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
Correct
A mesh network is the best solution because it provides redundancy, self-healing, and reliable coverage for mobile public safety vehicles.
Incorrect
A mesh network is the best solution because it provides redundancy, self-healing, and reliable coverage for mobile public safety vehicles.
CompTIA Network+ Practice Test 2
CompTIA Network+ Practice Test 2 challenges your growing expertise with intermediate-level questions and more complex performance-based scenarios. By this stage, you should notice measurable improvement in your scores, particularly in domains where you concentrated your study efforts after completing the first practice test.
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Network Plus Practice Test 2
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Question 1 of 95
1. Question
Which of the following is NOT a component typically associated with the Physical layer of the OSI model?
Correct
Switches operate primarily at the Data Link layer, not the Physical layer. The Physical layer includes components like network cables, NICs, and fiber optic transceivers.
Incorrect
Switches operate primarily at the Data Link layer, not the Physical layer. The Physical layer includes components like network cables, NICs, and fiber optic transceivers.
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Question 2 of 95
2. Question
Which feature allows a layer 3 switch to perform routing functions similar to a router?
Correct
A routing table allows a layer 3 switch to perform routing functions similar to a router. It maintains information about different network paths and determines the best route for data packets.
Incorrect
A routing table allows a layer 3 switch to perform routing functions similar to a router. It maintains information about different network paths and determines the best route for data packets.
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Question 3 of 95
3. Question
Which protocol is used by the Session layer to manage communication sessions between networked devices?
Correct
RPC (Remote Procedure Call) is used by the Session layer to manage communication sessions between networked devices. It allows a program to execute code on a remote system as if it were local.
Incorrect
RPC (Remote Procedure Call) is used by the Session layer to manage communication sessions between networked devices. It allows a program to execute code on a remote system as if it were local.
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Question 4 of 95
4. Question
What is the primary function of a router in a network?
Correct
The primary function of a router is to route data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data to travel from the source to the destination across interconnected networks.
Incorrect
The primary function of a router is to route data packets between different networks. It determines the best path for data to travel from the source to the destination across interconnected networks.
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Question 5 of 95
5. Question
How does an IPS differ from an IDS?
Correct
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) can take immediate action to block or mitigate threats, while an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) only detects and alerts. IPS is proactive in stopping threats before they can cause harm.
Incorrect
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) can take immediate action to block or mitigate threats, while an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) only detects and alerts. IPS is proactive in stopping threats before they can cause harm.
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Question 6 of 95
6. Question
What is the main advantage of a site-to-site VPN?
Correct
A site-to-site VPN connects entire networks to each other securely over the internet. This allows for secure communication between remote offices or branches.
Incorrect
A site-to-site VPN connects entire networks to each other securely over the internet. This allows for secure communication between remote offices or branches.
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Question 7 of 95
7. Question
Which of the following best describes PAT?
Correct
Port Address Translation (PAT) maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address using different port numbers.
Incorrect
Port Address Translation (PAT) maps multiple private IP addresses to a single public IP address using different port numbers.
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Question 8 of 95
8. Question
Which of the following is a key benefit of NFV?
Correct
A key benefit of NFV is improved network flexibility and scalability.
Incorrect
A key benefit of NFV is improved network flexibility and scalability.
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Question 9 of 95
9. Question
Which of the following is a key benefit of using Direct Connect for cloud connectivity? (Select all that apply)
Correct
A key benefit of using Direct Connect for cloud connectivity includes enhanced security through a private connection and decreased latency for data transmission.
Incorrect
A key benefit of using Direct Connect for cloud connectivity includes enhanced security through a private connection and decreased latency for data transmission.
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Question 10 of 95
10. Question
What is a common benefit of using SaaS for businesses?
Correct
A common benefit of using SaaS for businesses is the reduced need for in-house IT management and maintenance. SaaS providers handle the infrastructure, updates, and maintenance, allowing businesses to focus on their core activities.
Incorrect
A common benefit of using SaaS for businesses is the reduced need for in-house IT management and maintenance. SaaS providers handle the infrastructure, updates, and maintenance, allowing businesses to focus on their core activities.
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Question 11 of 95
11. Question
In which scenario is using FTP most appropriate?
Correct
Using FTP is most appropriate for uploading large files to a public server for access by multiple users. It is designed for transferring files efficiently but is not suitable for secure or encrypted transfers.
Incorrect
Using FTP is most appropriate for uploading large files to a public server for access by multiple users. It is designed for transferring files efficiently but is not suitable for secure or encrypted transfers.
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Question 12 of 95
12. Question
Which ports are commonly used by DHCP for communication between clients and servers?
Correct
DHCP commonly uses ports 67 and 68 for communication between clients and servers. Port 67 is used by the DHCP server to receive client requests, and port 68 is used by the client to receive responses from the server.
Incorrect
DHCP commonly uses ports 67 and 68 for communication between clients and servers. Port 67 is used by the DHCP server to receive client requests, and port 68 is used by the client to receive responses from the server.
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Question 13 of 95
13. Question
Which of the following tools uses ICMP to test network connectivity?
Correct
The ping command uses ICMP to test network connectivity. It sends ICMP Echo Request messages to a target host and waits for ICMP Echo Reply messages to determine if the host is reachable.
Incorrect
The ping command uses ICMP to test network connectivity. It sends ICMP Echo Request messages to a target host and waits for ICMP Echo Reply messages to determine if the host is reachable.
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Question 14 of 95
14. Question
What is a key advantage of using anycast communication in a network? (Select all that apply.)
Correct
Anycast allows multiple, geographically dispersed servers to share the same IP address. Efficient routing of data, reduced latency, and improved fault tolerance are all benefits of anycast communication.
Incorrect
Anycast allows multiple, geographically dispersed servers to share the same IP address. Efficient routing of data, reduced latency, and improved fault tolerance are all benefits of anycast communication.
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Question 15 of 95
15. Question
Which of the following 802.11 standards are capable of supporting both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands? (Select all that apply.)
Correct
The 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax standards are all capable of supporting both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, providing greater flexibility and compatibility with various devices.
Incorrect
The 802.11n, 802.11ac, and 802.11ax standards are all capable of supporting both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands, providing greater flexibility and compatibility with various devices.
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Question 16 of 95
16. Question
Which of the following statements best describes the performance of Twinaxial cables?
Correct
Twinaxial cables offer high-speed data transfer with low latency over short distances, making them suitable for data center and high-performance computing applications.
Incorrect
Twinaxial cables offer high-speed data transfer with low latency over short distances, making them suitable for data center and high-performance computing applications.
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Question 17 of 95
17. Question
What is a primary characteristic of a mesh network topology?
Correct
A primary characteristic of a mesh network topology is that each device is connected to every other device, providing multiple pathways for data to travel and enhancing network redundancy and reliability.
Incorrect
A primary characteristic of a mesh network topology is that each device is connected to every other device, providing multiple pathways for data to travel and enhancing network redundancy and reliability.
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Question 18 of 95
18. Question
What is the primary purpose of APIPA?
Correct
The primary purpose of Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is to provide a failover mechanism when DHCP servers are unavailable, allowing devices to self-assign IP addresses within the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 for local network communication.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is to provide a failover mechanism when DHCP servers are unavailable, allowing devices to self-assign IP addresses within the range of 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255 for local network communication.
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Question 19 of 95
19. Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of Class A IP addresses?
Correct
Class A IP addresses support a small number of large networks, each with a large number of host addresses, making them suitable for large organizations.
Incorrect
Class A IP addresses support a small number of large networks, each with a large number of host addresses, making them suitable for large organizations.
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Question 20 of 95
20. Question
How does application-aware networking enhance the performance of business-critical applications?
Correct
Application-aware networking enhances the performance of business-critical applications by prioritizing their network traffic. This ensures that these applications receive the necessary bandwidth and lower latency, which improves their overall performance. CPU allocation, storage capacity, and physical network setup are unrelated to application-aware networking.
Incorrect
Application-aware networking enhances the performance of business-critical applications by prioritizing their network traffic. This ensures that these applications receive the necessary bandwidth and lower latency, which improves their overall performance. CPU allocation, storage capacity, and physical network setup are unrelated to application-aware networking.
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Question 21 of 95
21. Question
Which principle is most closely associated with least privilege access in ZTA?
Correct
“Deny by default” is most closely associated with the principle of least privilege access in Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA). This approach ensures that access is denied unless explicitly granted, aligning with the idea that users should only have the minimum necessary permissions to perform their tasks.
Incorrect
“Deny by default” is most closely associated with the principle of least privilege access in Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA). This approach ensures that access is denied unless explicitly granted, aligning with the idea that users should only have the minimum necessary permissions to perform their tasks.
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Question 22 of 95
22. Question
Which scenario is best suited for static routing?
Correct
Static routing is best suited for small, simple networks with predictable traffic patterns where manual configuration is feasible.
Incorrect
Static routing is best suited for small, simple networks with predictable traffic patterns where manual configuration is feasible.
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Question 23 of 95
23. Question
What is the primary use case for implementing BGP in an enterprise network?
Correct
The primary use case for implementing BGP in an enterprise network is to provide robust and scalable inter-domain routing, connecting the enterprise network to multiple ISPs.
Incorrect
The primary use case for implementing BGP in an enterprise network is to provide robust and scalable inter-domain routing, connecting the enterprise network to multiple ISPs.
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Question 24 of 95
24. Question
How does Administrative Distance affect route selection in a router?
Correct
Routes with lower Administrative Distance are preferred over those with higher AD, ensuring the most reliable route is selected.
Incorrect
Routes with lower Administrative Distance are preferred over those with higher AD, ensuring the most reliable route is selected.
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Question 25 of 95
25. Question
Which type of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a pool of public IP addresses?
Correct
Dynamic NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a pool of public IP addresses, allocating public IP addresses on a first-come, first-served basis.
Incorrect
Dynamic NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a pool of public IP addresses, allocating public IP addresses on a first-come, first-served basis.
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Question 26 of 95
26. Question
What does FHRP stand for in networking?
Correct
FHRP stands for First Hop Redundancy Protocol, a protocol used to ensure network redundancy and availability by providing a backup router in case the primary router fails.
Incorrect
FHRP stands for First Hop Redundancy Protocol, a protocol used to ensure network redundancy and availability by providing a backup router in case the primary router fails.
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Question 27 of 95
27. Question
What is the primary purpose of a VLAN database in network management?
Correct
The primary purpose of a VLAN database is to maintain information about VLAN configurations and assignments, ensuring that VLAN settings are consistent across the network.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of a VLAN database is to maintain information about VLAN configurations and assignments, ensuring that VLAN settings are consistent across the network.
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Question 28 of 95
28. Question
By which mechanism does a voice VLAN primarily enhance the performance of VoIP (Voice over IP) systems?
Correct
A voice VLAN primarily enhances the performance of VoIP systems by ensuring that voice traffic receives higher priority and reduced latency, which is crucial for maintaining call quality and reliability.
Incorrect
A voice VLAN primarily enhances the performance of VoIP systems by ensuring that voice traffic receives higher priority and reduced latency, which is crucial for maintaining call quality and reliability.
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Question 29 of 95
29. Question
What happens if there is a mismatch in speed settings between two connected network devices?
Correct
If there is a mismatch in speed settings between two connected network devices, the connection may experience significant performance degradation or fail to establish.
Incorrect
If there is a mismatch in speed settings between two connected network devices, the connection may experience significant performance degradation or fail to establish.
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Question 30 of 95
30. Question
What is the primary purpose of STP in a network?
Correct
The primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is to prevent network loops and ensure a loop-free topology, which is crucial for maintaining stable and efficient network operations.
Incorrect
The primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is to prevent network loops and ensure a loop-free topology, which is crucial for maintaining stable and efficient network operations.
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Question 31 of 95
31. Question
How many Designated Ports are allowed per network segment?
Correct
Only one Designated Port is allowed per network segment in STP. The Designated Port is responsible for forwarding traffic for that segment, ensuring efficient data transmission.
Incorrect
Only one Designated Port is allowed per network segment in STP. The Designated Port is responsible for forwarding traffic for that segment, ensuring efficient data transmission.
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Question 32 of 95
32. Question
How does increasing the channel width from 20 MHz to 40 MHz affect a wireless network? (Select all that apply.)
Correct
Increasing the channel width from 20 MHz to 40 MHz increases the available bandwidth and potential data throughput. However, it decreases the number of available channels, potentially causing more interference.
Incorrect
Increasing the channel width from 20 MHz to 40 MHz increases the available bandwidth and potential data throughput. However, it decreases the number of available channels, potentially causing more interference.
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Question 33 of 95
33. Question
What is a potential drawback of using the 5GHz frequency band?
Correct
A potential drawback of using the 5GHz frequency band is its shorter range and less penetration through obstacles compared to the 2.4GHz band, which can be a limitation in environments with many physical barriers.
Incorrect
A potential drawback of using the 5GHz frequency band is its shorter range and less penetration through obstacles compared to the 2.4GHz band, which can be a limitation in environments with many physical barriers.
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Question 34 of 95
34. Question
What could be a drawback of using a single SSID for both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands in a mixed-device environment?
Correct
A drawback of using a single SSID for both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands in a mixed-device environment is that devices might consistently connect to the 2.4GHz band, resulting in slower speeds. This can happen because many devices default to the 2.4GHz band due to its better range, despite the 5GHz band offering faster speeds.
Incorrect
A drawback of using a single SSID for both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands in a mixed-device environment is that devices might consistently connect to the 2.4GHz band, resulting in slower speeds. This can happen because many devices default to the 2.4GHz band due to its better range, despite the 5GHz band offering faster speeds.
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Question 35 of 95
35. Question
Which of the following is a key enhancement introduced in WPA3 over WPA2?
Correct
WPA3 introduces enhanced protection against offline dictionary attacks through a more robust handshake process, a significant improvement over WPA2.
Incorrect
WPA3 introduces enhanced protection against offline dictionary attacks through a more robust handshake process, a significant improvement over WPA2.
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Question 36 of 95
36. Question
In a multi-story building, where would you most likely place an IDF?
Correct
The Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) is typically located on each floor of a building to manage and connect local devices to the Main Distribution Frame (MDF).
Incorrect
The Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF) is typically located on each floor of a building to manage and connect local devices to the Main Distribution Frame (MDF).
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Question 37 of 95
37. Question
What is the main advantage of using a fiber distribution panel in a data center?
Correct
A fiber distribution panel allows for the organization and management of fiber connections in a data center.
Incorrect
A fiber distribution panel allows for the organization and management of fiber connections in a data center.
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Question 38 of 95
38. Question
When balancing the power load across multiple circuits in a data center, which factor is MOST CRUCIAL to avoid circuit overload?
Correct
The MOST CRUCIAL factor when balancing the power load is monitoring the current draw of each device, preventing overload and potential outages.
Incorrect
The MOST CRUCIAL factor when balancing the power load is monitoring the current draw of each device, preventing overload and potential outages.
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Question 39 of 95
39. Question
In a data center, which fire suppression system is MOST EFFECTIVE at extinguishing a fire without damaging sensitive electronic equipment?
Correct
Inert gas systems suppress fires by displacing oxygen and are most effective without damaging sensitive electronic equipment.
Incorrect
Inert gas systems suppress fires by displacing oxygen and are most effective without damaging sensitive electronic equipment.
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Question 40 of 95
40. Question
Which aspect of network documentation is BEST represented by a physical network diagram rather than a logical network diagram?
Correct
A physical network diagram best represents the cabling paths and rack locations in a data center, showing the actual physical layout.
Incorrect
A physical network diagram best represents the cabling paths and rack locations in a data center, showing the actual physical layout.
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Question 41 of 95
41. Question
When troubleshooting network performance issues related to data transmission between different subnets, which layer’s network diagram would be MOST USEFUL?
Correct
A Layer 3 network diagram would be MOST USEFUL for troubleshooting network performance issues related to data transmission between different subnets. Layer 3, or the Network Layer, handles routing and logical addressing.
Incorrect
A Layer 3 network diagram would be MOST USEFUL for troubleshooting network performance issues related to data transmission between different subnets. Layer 3, or the Network Layer, handles routing and logical addressing.
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Question 42 of 95
42. Question
What is the PRIMARY risk associated with continuing to use network equipment beyond its EOS date?
Correct
The PRIMARY risk is that security vulnerabilities may go unpatched, exposing the network to threats after End-of-Support (EOS) date.
Incorrect
The PRIMARY risk is that security vulnerabilities may go unpatched, exposing the network to threats after End-of-Support (EOS) date.
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Question 43 of 95
43. Question
Which method is MOST EFFECTIVE for ensuring that all change requests are properly tracked and documented in a network environment?
Correct
Implementing an automated tracking system is the most effective method for ensuring all change requests are properly tracked and documented, reducing human error.
Incorrect
Implementing an automated tracking system is the most effective method for ensuring all change requests are properly tracked and documented, reducing human error.
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Question 44 of 95
44. Question
In an SNMPv3 implementation, which component is CRUCIAL for ensuring that SNMP traps are securely transmitted and received between the network devices and the SNMP manager?
Correct
The implementation of the User-based Security Model (USM) is CRUCIAL in SNMPv3 for securing trap transmissions through authentication and encryption.
Incorrect
The implementation of the User-based Security Model (USM) is CRUCIAL in SNMPv3 for securing trap transmissions through authentication and encryption.
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Question 45 of 95
45. Question
Which method is best for capturing packets on a specific network segment without interrupting network traffic?
Correct
Enabling port mirroring on a switch is best for capturing packets non-intrusively by sending copies of traffic to a monitoring port.
Incorrect
Enabling port mirroring on a switch is best for capturing packets non-intrusively by sending copies of traffic to a monitoring port.
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Question 46 of 95
46. Question
Which feature of a SIEM system is MOST CRUCIAL for detecting security incidents as they occur?
Correct
The MOST CRUCIAL feature of a SIEM system for detecting security incidents in real-time is the implementation of real-time correlation rules. These allow the SIEM to analyze logs as received, identifying incident patterns promptly.
Incorrect
The MOST CRUCIAL feature of a SIEM system for detecting security incidents in real-time is the implementation of real-time correlation rules. These allow the SIEM to analyze logs as received, identifying incident patterns promptly.
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Question 47 of 95
47. Question
Which tool is BEST SUITED for capturing and analyzing real-time network traffic to diagnose performance issues?
Correct
A network protocol analyzer is best suited for capturing and analyzing real-time network traffic to diagnose performance issues, allowing inspection of individual packets and traffic flow.
Incorrect
A network protocol analyzer is best suited for capturing and analyzing real-time network traffic to diagnose performance issues, allowing inspection of individual packets and traffic flow.
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Question 48 of 95
48. Question
Which strategy is MOST EFFECTIVE for maintaining network availability during scheduled maintenance?
Correct
Implementing redundant systems to take over during maintenance is most effective for maintaining availability, minimizing downtime if one system is offline.
Incorrect
Implementing redundant systems to take over during maintenance is most effective for maintaining availability, minimizing downtime if one system is offline.
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Question 49 of 95
49. Question
Which scenario would require the SHORTEST RPO?
Correct
A financial institution processing high-frequency transactions requires the shortest RPO due to critical data loss consequences.
Incorrect
A financial institution processing high-frequency transactions requires the shortest RPO due to critical data loss consequences.
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Question 50 of 95
50. Question
An IT team wants to predict how often their systems might fail during operation. Which metric are they focusing on?
Correct
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measures average time between system failures, indicating system reliability and failure prediction.
Incorrect
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measures average time between system failures, indicating system reliability and failure prediction.
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Question 51 of 95
51. Question
Which of the following is NOT a commonly cited advantage of using a hot site for disaster recovery?
Correct
Lower operational costs compared to other recovery sites is NOT an advantage of hot sites, which typically have higher operational costs.
Incorrect
Lower operational costs compared to other recovery sites is NOT an advantage of hot sites, which typically have higher operational costs.
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Question 52 of 95
52. Question
A company needs a high availability solution where one server handles all the traffic, and another server only becomes active if the primary server fails. Which configuration are they most likely using?
Correct
An Active-Passive configuration is where one server handles traffic while another is standby to take over on failure.
Incorrect
An Active-Passive configuration is where one server handles traffic while another is standby to take over on failure.
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Question 53 of 95
53. Question
A network administrator needs to allocate a range of IP addresses for devices on a specific subnet. They must ensure that the addresses are assigned dynamically within this range. What configuration should the administrator focus on?
Correct
A DHCP scope defines the range of IP addresses a DHCP server can assign dynamically on a subnet.
Incorrect
A DHCP scope defines the range of IP addresses a DHCP server can assign dynamically on a subnet.
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Question 54 of 95
54. Question
A network administrator needs to ensure that certain IP addresses within the DHCP scope are not assigned to clients because they are reserved for static use. What configuration should the administrator implement?
Correct
DHCP exclusions specify ranges of IP addresses within the DHCP scope that should not be assigned dynamically.
Incorrect
DHCP exclusions specify ranges of IP addresses within the DHCP scope that should not be assigned dynamically.
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Question 55 of 95
55. Question
Which of the following best describes the role of DNSSEC in a network?
Correct
DNSSEC provides authentication and integrity for DNS responses to prevent spoofing attacks.
Incorrect
DNSSEC provides authentication and integrity for DNS responses to prevent spoofing attacks.
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Question 56 of 95
56. Question
A company needs to securely connect its headquarters with a branch office located in another city, allowing both locations to share resources as if they were on the same local network. What solution should they implement?
Correct
A site-to-site VPN is designed to securely connect entire networks over the internet, allowing resource sharing as if on the same LAN.
Incorrect
A site-to-site VPN is designed to securely connect entire networks over the internet, allowing resource sharing as if on the same LAN.
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Question 57 of 95
57. Question
A network administrator needs to configure a new router that has not yet been connected to the network. What type of connection should they use to perform the initial setup?
Correct
A console connection is typically used for the initial setup of network devices, before network communication is established.
Incorrect
A console connection is typically used for the initial setup of network devices, before network communication is established.
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Question 58 of 95
58. Question
A company needs to encrypt sensitive data with a high level of security. They are considering using either a symmetric or an asymmetric encryption algorithm. Which of the following algorithms should they use if they opt for a symmetric encryption method?
Correct
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a widely used symmetric encryption algorithm known for strong security and efficiency.
Incorrect
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a widely used symmetric encryption algorithm known for strong security and efficiency.
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Question 59 of 95
59. Question
Which of the following best describes the role of MFA in IAM?
Correct
Multifactor Authentication (MFA) enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification before granting access, reducing unauthorized access risk.
Incorrect
Multifactor Authentication (MFA) enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification before granting access, reducing unauthorized access risk.
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Question 60 of 95
60. Question
Which of the following best describes the principle of least privilege in authorization?
Correct
The principle of least privilege ensures users are granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions, reducing security risks.
Incorrect
The principle of least privilege ensures users are granted only the minimum permissions necessary to perform their job functions, reducing security risks.
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Question 61 of 95
61. Question
A company recently installed biometric locks to secure its data center. However, they have noticed that some employees are experiencing frequent access denials even though they are authorized users. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
Correct
The issue is likely due to a high False Rejection Rate (FRR), where the biometric system incorrectly denies access to legitimate users.
Incorrect
The issue is likely due to a high False Rejection Rate (FRR), where the biometric system incorrectly denies access to legitimate users.
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Question 62 of 95
62. Question
A security team wants to monitor a broader range of attacker behaviors by setting up multiple decoy systems that work together to simulate a realistic network environment. What type of security architecture are they implementing?
Correct
A honeynet is a network of honeypots working together to simulate a realistic environment to monitor attacker behavior comprehensively.
Incorrect
A honeynet is a network of honeypots working together to simulate a realistic environment to monitor attacker behavior comprehensively.
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Question 63 of 95
63. Question
Which of the following best defines a vulnerability in the context of network security?
Correct
A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in a system that can be exploited by a threat, potentially leading to unauthorized access or breaches.
Incorrect
A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw in a system that can be exploited by a threat, potentially leading to unauthorized access or breaches.
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Question 64 of 95
64. Question
A company operating in the European Union collects personal data from its customers. To comply with regulations requiring customer control over their data, including the right to have data erased, which regulation must the company adhere to?
Correct
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires companies in the EU to protect privacy and give customers data control including erasure rights.
Incorrect
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires companies in the EU to protect privacy and give customers data control including erasure rights.
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Question 65 of 95
65. Question
Which of the following is NOT an effective strategy for mitigating DoS attacks?
Correct
Using anti-virus software is NOT effective against DoS attacks since they target availability, not malware.
Incorrect
Using anti-virus software is NOT effective against DoS attacks since they target availability, not malware.
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Question 66 of 95
66. Question
A network administrator notices unauthorized devices appearing in different VLANs across the network. After investigation, they find these devices are sending frames with 802.1Q tags that don’t match their assigned VLAN. Which action would BEST prevent this attack?
Correct
Disabling DTP on all switch ports prevents VLAN hopping attacks by stopping dynamic trunk negotiation, blocking unauthorized tagged frames.
Incorrect
Disabling DTP on all switch ports prevents VLAN hopping attacks by stopping dynamic trunk negotiation, blocking unauthorized tagged frames.
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Question 67 of 95
67. Question
Which of the following is the MOST effective technique for mitigating ARP-related attacks?
Correct
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) validates ARP packets against trusted IP-to-MAC mappings, mitigating ARP spoofing and related attacks.
Incorrect
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) validates ARP packets against trusted IP-to-MAC mappings, mitigating ARP spoofing and related attacks.
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Question 68 of 95
68. Question
A user was redirected to a suspicious website after entering their bank’s URL. The DNS request was intercepted and altered. Which measure BEST prevents this attack?
Correct
Implementing DNSSEC uses cryptographic signatures to ensure authenticity of DNS responses, preventing DNS spoofing attacks.
Incorrect
Implementing DNSSEC uses cryptographic signatures to ensure authenticity of DNS responses, preventing DNS spoofing attacks.
-
Question 69 of 95
69. Question
A user received an unexpected bank email asking for transaction verification. The communication was intercepted and altered. What attack likely occurred?
Correct
An on-path attack involves intercepting and altering communications, enabling fraudulent messages to users.
Incorrect
An on-path attack involves intercepting and altering communications, enabling fraudulent messages to users.
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Question 70 of 95
70. Question
What is a common consequence of a ransomware attack on an organization?
Correct
An attack encrypts organization data, rendering it inaccessible until a ransom is paid.
Incorrect
An attack encrypts organization data, rendering it inaccessible until a ransom is paid.
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Question 71 of 95
71. Question
What could have prevented two devices on the network using the same MAC address, causing connectivity issues?
Correct
Configuring port security limits allowed devices per port and helps prevent MAC address spoofing conflicts.
Incorrect
Configuring port security limits allowed devices per port and helps prevent MAC address spoofing conflicts.
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Question 72 of 95
72. Question
A port is disabled after an unauthorized device tries to connect. What port security feature caused this?
Correct
Shutdown violation mode disables the port after an unauthorized access attempt to protect the network.
Incorrect
Shutdown violation mode disables the port after an unauthorized access attempt to protect the network.
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Question 73 of 95
73. Question
Which solution best ensures only known devices access a small business’s wireless network?
Correct
MAC filtering on wireless access points limits access to approved devices only, enhancing security.
Incorrect
MAC filtering on wireless access points limits access to approved devices only, enhancing security.
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Question 74 of 95
74. Question
How does RBAC differ from ABAC in managing access to cryptographic keys?
Correct
RBAC grants access based on user roles; ABAC uses specific attributes like clearance and context for fine-grained control.
Incorrect
RBAC grants access based on user roles; ABAC uses specific attributes like clearance and context for fine-grained control.
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Question 75 of 95
75. Question
Which solution most effectively prevents employees from accessing malicious websites and reduces malware risk?
Correct
Content filtering restricts access to malicious sites, reducing malware infections effectively.
Incorrect
Content filtering restricts access to malicious sites, reducing malware infections effectively.
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Question 76 of 95
76. Question
After designing the network topology and placing the public-facing servers within the screened subnet, what should be the next step the network administrator takes to ensure the subnet is secure?
Correct
Establishing security rules on the internal firewall to control traffic between the subnet and the internal network is the next critical step for securing the subnet.
Incorrect
Establishing security rules on the internal firewall to control traffic between the subnet and the internal network is the next critical step for securing the subnet.
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Question 77 of 95
77. Question
A user reports intermittent slowdowns when accessing a shared network drive. What is the BEST initial question to ask to begin diagnosing this issue?
Correct
Asking the user to describe exactly what happens when the slowdown occurs helps gather specific information crucial for diagnosis.
Incorrect
Asking the user to describe exactly what happens when the slowdown occurs helps gather specific information crucial for diagnosis.
-
Question 78 of 95
78. Question
A user reports that they cannot access a shared network drive. What is the first thing you should check?
Correct
The first step is to check whether the user’s computer is connected to the network, fundamental for accessing shared resources.
Incorrect
The first step is to check whether the user’s computer is connected to the network, fundamental for accessing shared resources.
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Question 79 of 95
79. Question
You’ve been troubleshooting a recurring network issue that’s only affecting a small subset of users, all located in the same physical area of the building. Despite testing several theories, the root cause remains unclear. What is the MOST appropriate next step?
Correct
Investigate potential environmental factors in the physical area, as localized issues often arise due to such causes.
Incorrect
Investigate potential environmental factors in the physical area, as localized issues often arise due to such causes.
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Question 80 of 95
80. Question
You are about to implement a critical update on a production server. Which of the following actions should you take first?
Correct
Scheduling the update during a maintenance window minimizes user impact and ensures careful implementation.
Incorrect
Scheduling the update during a maintenance window minimizes user impact and ensures careful implementation.
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Question 81 of 95
81. Question
Which of the following is NOT a key difference between STP and UTP cables?
Correct
STP and UTP do not differ in transmission distance; key differences relate to shielding, cost, and typical usage.
Incorrect
STP and UTP do not differ in transmission distance; key differences relate to shielding, cost, and typical usage.
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Question 82 of 95
82. Question
A network in a certain section of a building is experiencing intermittent connectivity issues. The cables are all within standard length limits and have been properly terminated. Additionally, the network equipment shows no signs of hardware failure. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
Correct
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby sources is the most likely cause after eliminating cable and hardware issues.
Incorrect
Electromagnetic interference (EMI) from nearby sources is the most likely cause after eliminating cable and hardware issues.
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Question 83 of 95
83. Question
Which of the following conditions is NOT typically responsible for the presence of runts in a network?
Correct
Excessive fragmentation at the IP layer is not a typical cause of runts, which typically originate from physical layer or collision issues.
Incorrect
Excessive fragmentation at the IP layer is not a typical cause of runts, which typically originate from physical layer or collision issues.
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Question 84 of 95
84. Question
What is the BEST course of action if a network port is found to be administratively down but needs to be reactivated for use?
Correct
The correct command to reactivate an administratively down port is “no shutdown”.
Incorrect
The correct command to reactivate an administratively down port is “no shutdown”.
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Question 85 of 95
85. Question
Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of a network loop?
Correct
Broadcast storms causing excessive network traffic are the most common symptom of a network loop.
Incorrect
Broadcast storms causing excessive network traffic are the most common symptom of a network loop.
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Question 86 of 95
86. Question
What is the BEST initial step to resolve an issue where a switch port is assigned to the wrong VLAN?
Correct
The best initial step is to verify the VLAN assignment in the switch’s configuration and correct it if necessary.
Incorrect
The best initial step is to verify the VLAN assignment in the switch’s configuration and correct it if necessary.
-
Question 87 of 95
87. Question
Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of address pool exhaustion in a DHCP environment?
Correct
New devices cannot obtain an IP address and are assigned APIPA addresses when the DHCP address pool is exhausted.
Incorrect
New devices cannot obtain an IP address and are assigned APIPA addresses when the DHCP address pool is exhausted.
-
Question 88 of 95
88. Question
What is the MOST effective way to prevent duplicate IP address issues in a network?
Correct
Using DHCP to automatically assign IP addresses and avoid static IP configurations whenever possible is the best practice to prevent duplicate IP issues.
Incorrect
Using DHCP to automatically assign IP addresses and avoid static IP configurations whenever possible is the best practice to prevent duplicate IP issues.
-
Question 89 of 95
89. Question
Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for mitigating network contention?
Correct
Increasing the size of the broadcast domain is not recommended as it can increase congestion, worsening contention.
Incorrect
Increasing the size of the broadcast domain is not recommended as it can increase congestion, worsening contention.
-
Question 90 of 95
90. Question
Which of the following physical layer issues is MOST likely to cause a significant reduction in network throughput?
Correct
A damaged network cable with partially severed pairs causes errors and retransmissions, significantly reducing throughput.
Incorrect
A damaged network cable with partially severed pairs causes errors and retransmissions, significantly reducing throughput.
-
Question 91 of 95
91. Question
Which of the following is NOT a potential solution to reduce packet loss in a network?
Correct
Increasing the number of broadcast domains does not directly reduce packet loss.
Incorrect
Increasing the number of broadcast domains does not directly reduce packet loss.
-
Question 92 of 95
92. Question
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use of a protocol analyzer?
Correct
Configuring routing protocols on network devices is not a use of protocol analyzers.
Incorrect
Configuring routing protocols on network devices is not a use of protocol analyzers.
-
Question 93 of 95
93. Question
A network administrator needs to identify devices and their network details within a local network segment. The administrator prefers a tool that operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model. Which of the following tools should be used?
Correct
LLDP operates at Layer 2 and is used for network discovery on local segments.
Incorrect
LLDP operates at Layer 2 and is used for network discovery on local segments.
-
Question 94 of 95
94. Question
A company is merging with another organization, and the network administrator must ensure that devices on both networks can communicate. One network uses the 192.168.1.0/24 range, and the other uses 192.168.2.0/24. Both networks have overlapping IP addresses, causing conflicts. What is the BEST solution for resolving the IP address conflicts?
Correct
Reconfiguring one network to a different, non-overlapping subnet avoids IP address conflicts.
Incorrect
Reconfiguring one network to a different, non-overlapping subnet avoids IP address conflicts.
-
Question 95 of 95
95. Question
What must be configured to ensure instances in a VPC can communicate with the internet via an internet gateway?
Correct
Assigning a public IP address to the instances enables communication with the internet through the gateway.
Incorrect
Assigning a public IP address to the instances enables communication with the internet through the gateway.
CompTIA Network+ Practice Test 3
CompTIA Network+ Practice Test 3 represents your final readiness check, featuring advanced questions that closely simulate the actual exam difficulty and format. Consistent scores of 80% or higher on this practice test indicate you’re well-prepared to schedule your official N10-008 certification exam with confidence.
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Question 1 of 105
1. Question
Which of the following connectors is typically used with fiber optic cables?
Correct
LC Lucent Connector and SC Subscriber Connector are commonly used with fiber optic cables, whereas RJ45 is for twisted-pair cables and BNC for coaxial.
Incorrect
LC Lucent Connector and SC Subscriber Connector are commonly used with fiber optic cables, whereas RJ45 is for twisted-pair cables and BNC for coaxial.
-
Question 2 of 105
2. Question
Which of the following IP addresses is a valid host address within the subnet 192.168.10.0/25?
Correct
192.168.10.1 is a valid host address in the subnet 192.168.10.0/25; addresses .0 and .127 serve as network and broadcast addresses respectively.
Incorrect
192.168.10.1 is a valid host address in the subnet 192.168.10.0/25; addresses .0 and .127 serve as network and broadcast addresses respectively.
-
Question 3 of 105
3. Question
Which of the following is a key function of the Presentation layer in terms of data security?
Correct
Data encryption is a key Presentation layer function, securing data by encoding it for authorized recipients only.
Incorrect
Data encryption is a key Presentation layer function, securing data by encoding it for authorized recipients only.
-
Question 4 of 105
4. Question
Which routing protocol is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems on the internet?
Correct
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used between autonomous systems on the internet to determine best paths for data transmission.
Incorrect
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used between autonomous systems on the internet to determine best paths for data transmission.
-
Question 5 of 105
5. Question
Which type of load balancing algorithm distributes traffic equally among all available servers, regardless of their current load?
Correct
Round-robin distributes traffic equally by cycling sequentially through all servers, regardless of load.
Incorrect
Round-robin distributes traffic equally by cycling sequentially through all servers, regardless of load.
-
Question 6 of 105
6. Question
Which of the following is a common metric used in QoS configurations to measure the quality of a network connection?
Correct
Bandwidth, latency, and packet loss are all common QoS metrics that help evaluate network performance.
Incorrect
Bandwidth, latency, and packet loss are all common QoS metrics that help evaluate network performance.
-
Question 7 of 105
7. Question
What is the primary purpose of NAT?
Correct
NAT translates private IP addresses to a public IP address for internet access, enabling multiple devices to share one public IP.
Incorrect
NAT translates private IP addresses to a public IP address for internet access, enabling multiple devices to share one public IP.
-
Question 8 of 105
8. Question
How does NFV contribute to cost savings in a network environment?
Correct
NFV reduces costs by virtualizing network functions to reduce the number of required physical devices.
Incorrect
NFV reduces costs by virtualizing network functions to reduce the number of required physical devices.
-
Question 9 of 105
9. Question
How does an internet gateway affect data traffic in a cloud environment?
Correct
An internet gateway directs outgoing instance traffic to the internet and incoming traffic to instances, acting as a router for internet-bound data.
Incorrect
An internet gateway directs outgoing instance traffic to the internet and incoming traffic to instances, acting as a router for internet-bound data.
-
Question 10 of 105
10. Question
What is required to set up a Direct Connect connection between an on-premises data center and the cloud?
Correct
A dedicated physical connection provided by a Direct Connect partner is required for secure cloud connectivity.
Incorrect
A dedicated physical connection provided by a Direct Connect partner is required for secure cloud connectivity.
-
Question 11 of 105
11. Question
Which of the following best describes a use case for IaaS?
Correct
A use case for IaaS is hosting a scalable e-commerce platform that requires customized configurations, providing flexibility and control over infrastructure.
Incorrect
A use case for IaaS is hosting a scalable e-commerce platform that requires customized configurations, providing flexibility and control over infrastructure.
-
Question 12 of 105
12. Question
Which of the following protocols is built on the SSH protocol?
Correct
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is built on SSH and provides secure file transfer through encryption of commands and data.
Incorrect
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is built on SSH and provides secure file transfer through encryption of commands and data.
-
Question 13 of 105
13. Question
What type of transport layer protocol does TFTP use?
Correct
TFTP uses UDP (User Datagram Protocol) for connectionless file transfer with minimal overhead.
Incorrect
TFTP uses UDP (User Datagram Protocol) for connectionless file transfer with minimal overhead.
-
Question 14 of 105
14. Question
Which TCP feature is used to control the flow of data to prevent network congestion?
Correct
The window size feature controls the amount of data sent before receiving an acknowledgment, helping prevent congestion.
Incorrect
The window size feature controls the amount of data sent before receiving an acknowledgment, helping prevent congestion.
-
Question 15 of 105
15. Question
What might be a valid reason for a network administrator to monitor and limit broadcast traffic?
Correct
Monitoring and limiting broadcast traffic helps prevent network congestion and improves overall network performance.
Incorrect
Monitoring and limiting broadcast traffic helps prevent network congestion and improves overall network performance.
-
Question 16 of 105
16. Question
Which of the following are differences between 4G LTE and LTE-Advanced? (Select all that apply)
Correct
LTE-Advanced offers higher spectral efficiency, lower latency, and carrier aggregation compared to standard 4G LTE.
Incorrect
LTE-Advanced offers higher spectral efficiency, lower latency, and carrier aggregation compared to standard 4G LTE.
-
Question 17 of 105
17. Question
Which of the following is a primary component of a coaxial cable?
Correct
A primary component of a coaxial cable is a single copper conductor with a concentric shield that protects the signal from EMI.
Incorrect
A primary component of a coaxial cable is a single copper conductor with a concentric shield that protects the signal from EMI.
-
Question 18 of 105
18. Question
What is a potential drawback of implementing a hybrid network topology?
Correct
A potential drawback of a hybrid topology is increased costs and complexity associated with integrating multiple topologies.
Incorrect
A potential drawback of a hybrid topology is increased costs and complexity associated with integrating multiple topologies.
-
Question 19 of 105
19. Question
Which of the following is a benefit of using RFC1918 address ranges in an internal network?
Correct
Using RFC1918 private address ranges conserves public IP addresses by allowing internal communication without using public IPs.
Incorrect
Using RFC1918 private address ranges conserves public IP addresses by allowing internal communication without using public IPs.
-
Question 20 of 105
20. Question
Which organization would most likely use a Class B IP address?
Correct
A medium-sized enterprise would most likely use a Class B IP address, balancing network and host capacity.
Incorrect
A medium-sized enterprise would most likely use a Class B IP address, balancing network and host capacity.
-
Question 21 of 105
21. Question
Which component is essential for zero-touch provisioning to function?
Correct
A central management system is essential for zero-touch provisioning, enabling automatic configuration of devices without manual intervention.
Incorrect
A central management system is essential for zero-touch provisioning, enabling automatic configuration of devices without manual intervention.
-
Question 22 of 105
22. Question
What does SASE stand for in the context of network security?
Correct
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge, a framework combining network security and WAN capabilities for dynamic secure access.
Incorrect
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge, a framework combining network security and WAN capabilities for dynamic secure access.
-
Question 23 of 105
23. Question
What is a potential risk of relying solely on static routing in a medium to large enterprise network?
Correct
Sole reliance on static routing can lead to difficulty maintaining and updating routes as the network scales and changes.
Incorrect
Sole reliance on static routing can lead to difficulty maintaining and updating routes as the network scales and changes.
-
Question 24 of 105
24. Question
What is the primary purpose of EIGRP?
Correct
EIGRP provides efficient internal routing within an autonomous system, optimizing path selection and fast convergence.
Incorrect
EIGRP provides efficient internal routing within an autonomous system, optimizing path selection and fast convergence.
-
Question 25 of 105
25. Question
Why is it important to understand Administrative Distance when configuring a multi-protocol network?
Correct
It ensures the most reliable and trusted routes are preferred, enabling optimal network stability and performance.
Incorrect
It ensures the most reliable and trusted routes are preferred, enabling optimal network stability and performance.
-
Question 26 of 105
26. Question
How does NAT contribute to network security?
Correct
NAT hides internal IP addresses from external networks, making it harder for attackers to target specific devices.
Incorrect
NAT hides internal IP addresses from external networks, making it harder for attackers to target specific devices.
-
Question 27 of 105
27. Question
What is the primary benefit of using FHRP in a network?
Correct
FHRP increases network redundancy and reliability by enabling backup routers to take over if the primary router fails.
Incorrect
FHRP increases network redundancy and reliability by enabling backup routers to take over if the primary router fails.
-
Question 28 of 105
28. Question
How does the VLAN database contribute to network segmentation?
Correct
The VLAN database centralizes VLAN configurations, maintaining consistency across the network to ensure proper segmentation.
Incorrect
The VLAN database centralizes VLAN configurations, maintaining consistency across the network to ensure proper segmentation.
-
Question 29 of 105
29. Question
How does the use of a voice VLAN affect network security?
Correct
Voice VLANs isolate voice traffic from data traffic, potentially enhancing security by limiting voice traffic exposure.
Incorrect
Voice VLANs isolate voice traffic from data traffic, potentially enhancing security by limiting voice traffic exposure.
-
Question 30 of 105
30. Question
How does the duplex setting of a network interface affect data transmission?
Correct
Duplex setting controls whether the interface can send and receive data simultaneously (full duplex) or one direction at a time (half duplex).
Incorrect
Duplex setting controls whether the interface can send and receive data simultaneously (full duplex) or one direction at a time (half duplex).
-
Question 31 of 105
31. Question
Which component is essential for zero-touch provisioning to function?
Correct
A central management system is essential for zero-touch provisioning, enabling automatic configuration of devices without manual intervention.
Incorrect
A central management system is essential for zero-touch provisioning, enabling automatic configuration of devices without manual intervention.
-
Question 32 of 105
32. Question
What does SASE stand for in the context of network security?
Correct
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge, a framework combining network security functions with WAN capabilities for dynamic and secure access.
Incorrect
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge, a framework combining network security functions with WAN capabilities for dynamic and secure access.
-
Question 33 of 105
33. Question
What is a potential risk of relying solely on static routing in a medium to large enterprise network?
Correct
Reliance on static routing can make maintaining and updating routes difficult as the network scales and changes.
Incorrect
Reliance on static routing can make maintaining and updating routes difficult as the network scales and changes.
-
Question 34 of 105
34. Question
What is the primary purpose of EIGRP?
Correct
EIGRP provides efficient internal routing within an autonomous system, optimizing path selection and fast convergence.
Incorrect
EIGRP provides efficient internal routing within an autonomous system, optimizing path selection and fast convergence.
-
Question 35 of 105
35. Question
Why is it important to understand Administrative Distance when configuring a multi-protocol network?
Correct
Understanding Administrative Distance ensures the most reliable and trusted routes are preferred, improving network stability.
Incorrect
Understanding Administrative Distance ensures the most reliable and trusted routes are preferred, improving network stability.
-
Question 36 of 105
36. Question
How does NAT contribute to network security?
Correct
NAT enhances security by hiding internal IP addresses from external networks, complicating attacker access to devices.
Incorrect
NAT enhances security by hiding internal IP addresses from external networks, complicating attacker access to devices.
-
Question 37 of 105
37. Question
What is the primary benefit of using FHRP in a network?
Correct
FHRP increases network redundancy and reliability by providing backup routers if the primary router fails.
Incorrect
FHRP increases network redundancy and reliability by providing backup routers if the primary router fails.
-
Question 38 of 105
38. Question
How does the VLAN database contribute to network segmentation?
Correct
The VLAN database centralizes VLAN configurations, maintaining consistency to ensure proper segmentation.
Incorrect
The VLAN database centralizes VLAN configurations, maintaining consistency to ensure proper segmentation.
-
Question 39 of 105
39. Question
How does the use of a voice VLAN affect network security?
Correct
Voice VLANs isolate voice traffic from data traffic, potentially enhancing security by limiting exposure.
Incorrect
Voice VLANs isolate voice traffic from data traffic, potentially enhancing security by limiting exposure.
-
Question 40 of 105
40. Question
How does the duplex setting of a network interface affect data transmission?
Correct
The duplex setting controls whether the interface can send and receive data simultaneously (full duplex) or only one direction at a time (half duplex).
Incorrect
The duplex setting controls whether the interface can send and receive data simultaneously (full duplex) or only one direction at a time (half duplex).
-
Question 41 of 105
41. Question
What happens to a port that is designated as a blocked port by STP?
Correct
A port designated as blocked by STP does not forward user traffic but listens for STP messages to maintain network topology.
Incorrect
A port designated as blocked by STP does not forward user traffic but listens for STP messages to maintain network topology.
-
Question 42 of 105
42. Question
What is the typical state of the Alternate Port in STP?
Correct
The Alternate Port is typically in blocking state to provide a backup path to the root bridge.
Incorrect
The Alternate Port is typically in blocking state to provide a backup path to the root bridge.
-
Question 43 of 105
43. Question
Why are channels 1, 6, and 11 recommended in the 2.4 GHz band?
Correct
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping channels, minimizing interference on the 2.4 GHz band.
Incorrect
Channels 1, 6, and 11 are non-overlapping channels, minimizing interference on the 2.4 GHz band.
-
Question 44 of 105
44. Question
What is a limitation of the 6 GHz frequency compared to 2.4 GHz?
Correct
The 6 GHz band has shorter range and less ability to penetrate obstacles than 2.4 GHz.
Incorrect
The 6 GHz band has shorter range and less ability to penetrate obstacles than 2.4 GHz.
-
Question 45 of 105
45. Question
What is a key advantage of mesh networks?
Correct
Mesh networks provide seamless coverage with automatic rerouting when nodes fail.
Incorrect
Mesh networks provide seamless coverage with automatic rerouting when nodes fail.
-
Question 46 of 105
46. Question
What is the main function of a captive portal?
Correct
A captive portal controls access to networks by redirecting users to a login or acceptance page.
Incorrect
A captive portal controls access to networks by redirecting users to a login or acceptance page.
-
Question 47 of 105
47. Question
What does the Main Distribution Frame (MDF) do?
Correct
The MDF serves to connect external communication lines to the internal wiring of a building.
Incorrect
The MDF serves to connect external communication lines to the internal wiring of a building.
-
Question 48 of 105
48. Question
What is the critical installation consideration when placing a fiber distribution panel?
Correct
Maintaining proper bend radius of fiber optic cables to prevent signal loss is critical.
Incorrect
Maintaining proper bend radius of fiber optic cables to prevent signal loss is critical.
-
Question 49 of 105
49. Question
How should server power-on sequences be managed to prevent overload?
Correct
Power-on sequences should be staggered to manage power consumption and prevent circuit overload.
Incorrect
Power-on sequences should be staggered to manage power consumption and prevent circuit overload.
-
Question 50 of 105
50. Question
What is the key feature of fire suppression systems in a data center?
Correct
The system should extinguish fires without damaging sensitive equipment, thus avoiding use of water-based agents.
Incorrect
The system should extinguish fires without damaging sensitive equipment, thus avoiding use of water-based agents.
-
Question 51 of 105
51. Question
When troubleshooting, which diagram is most useful for identifying misconfigurations related to network segmentation?
Correct
The logical network diagram shows device connectivity and subnet allocations, helpful to find segmentation issues.
Incorrect
The logical network diagram shows device connectivity and subnet allocations, helpful to find segmentation issues.
-
Question 52 of 105
52. Question
What is the primary reason for maintaining an accurate asset inventory in a network environment?
Correct
Tracking warranty expirations and support contracts enables timely maintenance and replacement.
Incorrect
Tracking warranty expirations and support contracts enables timely maintenance and replacement.
-
Question 53 of 105
53. Question
What is the most effective strategy for managing end-of-life (EOL) network equipment?
Correct
Gradual phase-out with integration of new technology prevents downtime and operational risk.
Incorrect
Gradual phase-out with integration of new technology prevents downtime and operational risk.
-
Question 54 of 105
54. Question
What is the correct order of steps for processing and tracking a change request?
Correct
Log request, prioritize, implement, update log, and review outcome for effective change management.
Incorrect
Log request, prioritize, implement, update log, and review outcome for effective change management.
-
Question 55 of 105
55. Question
In the context of SNMP, what is the role of the Management Information Base (MIB)?
Correct
The MIB provides a hierarchical structure for organizing and accessing network management data in SNMP.
Incorrect
The MIB provides a hierarchical structure for organizing and accessing network management data in SNMP.
-
Question 56 of 105
56. Question
Which packet capture method is least likely to cause network performance degradation?
Correct
Using a network tap is least likely to degrade network performance since it passively copies traffic.
Incorrect
Using a network tap is least likely to degrade network performance since it passively copies traffic.
-
Question 57 of 105
57. Question
What is the primary benefit of integrating APIs in network monitoring systems?
Correct
APIs allow real-time data exchange between different monitoring tools for improved network management.
Incorrect
APIs allow real-time data exchange between different monitoring tools for improved network management.
-
Question 58 of 105
58. Question
Which method is most effective to detect Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?
Correct
Using NetFlow data to analyze traffic patterns and volumes is most effective to detect DDoS attacks.
Incorrect
Using NetFlow data to analyze traffic patterns and volumes is most effective to detect DDoS attacks.
-
Question 59 of 105
59. Question
Which method is least cost-effective to manage unexpected network congestion?
Correct
Expanding physical bandwidth is least cost-effective compared to other management methods.
Incorrect
Expanding physical bandwidth is least cost-effective compared to other management methods.
-
Question 60 of 105
60. Question
Which scenario requires the shortest Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
Correct
A financial institution processing high-frequency transactions requires the shortest RPO to minimize data loss.
Incorrect
A financial institution processing high-frequency transactions requires the shortest RPO to minimize data loss.
-
Question 61 of 105
61. Question
Which of the following best describes a cold site in disaster recovery?
Correct
A cold site provides basic infrastructure and requires setup and configuration before use.
Incorrect
A cold site provides basic infrastructure and requires setup and configuration before use.
-
Question 62 of 105
62. Question
What best describes an active-active configuration in high availability setups?
Correct
All nodes are active, sharing load and providing redundancy in case of failure.
Incorrect
All nodes are active, sharing load and providing redundancy in case of failure.
-
Question 63 of 105
63. Question
What is the purpose of tabletop exercises in disaster recovery?
Correct
They provide cost-effective evaluation of recovery procedures through structured scenario discussions.
Incorrect
They provide cost-effective evaluation of recovery procedures through structured scenario discussions.
-
Question 64 of 105
64. Question
What is the purpose of DHCP lease time?
Correct
It defines how long a device can use an assigned IP address before renewal is required.
Incorrect
It defines how long a device can use an assigned IP address before renewal is required.
-
Question 65 of 105
65. Question
Which DNS record type maps a domain name to an IPv4 address?
Correct
The A record maps domain names to IPv4 addresses.
Incorrect
The A record maps domain names to IPv4 addresses.
-
Question 66 of 105
66. Question
Which DNS record type maps a domain name to an IPv6 address?
Correct
AAAA records are used to map domain names to IPv6 addresses.
Incorrect
AAAA records are used to map domain names to IPv6 addresses.
-
Question 67 of 105
67. Question
Which protocol is built on SSH for secure file transfer?
Correct
SFTP is built on SSH and provides secure file transfer.
Incorrect
SFTP is built on SSH and provides secure file transfer.
-
Question 68 of 105
68. Question
Which type of device provides a secure gateway for accessing network resources?
Correct
A jump box acts as a secure intermediate access point for network resources.
Incorrect
A jump box acts as a secure intermediate access point for network resources.
-
Question 69 of 105
69. Question
Which of the following protocols does NOT provide encryption for network traffic?
Correct
RADIUS does not encrypt network traffic; it is used primarily for authentication and authorization.
Incorrect
RADIUS does not encrypt network traffic; it is used primarily for authentication and authorization.
-
Question 70 of 105
70. Question
Which is NOT a key feature of Single Sign-On (SSO)?
Correct
SSO does not inherently require multiple forms of authentication, which is a feature of MFA.
Incorrect
SSO does not inherently require multiple forms of authentication, which is a feature of MFA.
-
Question 71 of 105
71. Question
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of implementing RBAC in an organization?
Correct
RBAC does not allow users to adjust their own access levels; permissions are managed through roles.
Incorrect
RBAC does not allow users to adjust their own access levels; permissions are managed through roles.
-
Question 72 of 105
72. Question
What is the most likely benefit of adding more physical barriers to a data center?
Correct
Physical barriers provide an extra layer of protection against unauthorized physical access.
Incorrect
Physical barriers provide an extra layer of protection against unauthorized physical access.
-
Question 73 of 105
73. Question
Which of the following is NOT a primary characteristic of a honeynet?
Correct
A honeynet is not designed to block attackers but to observe their behaviors in a controlled environment.
Incorrect
A honeynet is not designed to block attackers but to observe their behaviors in a controlled environment.
-
Question 74 of 105
74. Question
What type of vulnerability likely allows an attacker to execute code remotely and escalate privileges?
Correct
A buffer overflow vulnerability often allows remote code execution and privilege escalation.
Incorrect
A buffer overflow vulnerability often allows remote code execution and privilege escalation.
-
Question 75 of 105
75. Question
What is a key focus of the TLS protocol?
Correct
TLS ensures confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged over secure connections.
Incorrect
TLS ensures confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged over secure connections.
-
Question 76 of 105
76. Question
A network administrator notices a significant drop in the availability of a critical web service, accompanied by unusually high inbound traffic from multiple sources.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?Correct
The most likely cause is a DDoS attack, which overwhelms the service with malicious traffic causing reduced availability.
Incorrect
The most likely cause is a DDoS attack, which overwhelms the service with malicious traffic causing reduced availability.
-
Question 77 of 105
77. Question
Which of the following best describes the impact of a successful MAC flooding attack on a network switch?
Correct
The switch’s CAM table is overflowed, causing it to broadcast all incoming frames to all ports, allowing attackers to capture unintended traffic.
Incorrect
The switch’s CAM table is overflowed, causing it to broadcast all incoming frames to all ports, allowing attackers to capture unintended traffic.
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Question 78 of 105
78. Question
Which of the following is NOT an effective method for mitigating ARP spoofing?
Correct
Implementing IPsec to encrypt ARP traffic is NOT effective because ARP traffic is typically not encrypted and IPsec is not for ARP.
Incorrect
Implementing IPsec to encrypt ARP traffic is NOT effective because ARP traffic is typically not encrypted and IPsec is not for ARP.
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Question 79 of 105
79. Question
A network administrator notices that some devices on the network are receiving incorrect IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Upon investigation, they discover that an unauthorized device is assigning IP addresses. Which of the following actions would BEST mitigate this issue?
Correct
Implementing DHCP snooping on all switches allows only trusted ports to provide DHCP services, mitigating rogue DHCP server issues.
Incorrect
Implementing DHCP snooping on all switches allows only trusted ports to provide DHCP services, mitigating rogue DHCP server issues.
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Question 80 of 105
80. Question
Which of the following is NOT a typical method used in an on-path attack?
Correct
Flooding the network with traffic to disrupt communication is not typical of on-path attacks; it resembles DoS attacks.
Incorrect
Flooding the network with traffic to disrupt communication is not typical of on-path attacks; it resembles DoS attacks.
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Question 81 of 105
81. Question
An employee reports that after installing a seemingly legitimate software update from an unfamiliar source, they noticed a new application running in the background that they didn’t recognize. The system remains responsive, but confidential files have started to disappear, and an outbound connection to an unknown server has been detected.
What is the MOST likely explanation for these symptoms?Correct
The software update contained Trojan malware that is now active on the system. Trojans appear legitimate but execute malicious activities such as deleting files and establishing unauthorized connections.
Incorrect
The software update contained Trojan malware that is now active on the system. Trojans appear legitimate but execute malicious activities such as deleting files and establishing unauthorized connections.
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Question 82 of 105
82. Question
A new network device was recently installed in an organization. Shortly after, the IT team notices unauthorized access attempts to the device. Upon investigation, it was found that the device was still using its factory settings.
What security measure should have been implemented during the installation to prevent this issue?Correct
Changing the default password to a strong, unique one should have been implemented during device installation to prevent unauthorized access via widely known default credentials.
Incorrect
Changing the default password to a strong, unique one should have been implemented during device installation to prevent unauthorized access via widely known default credentials.
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Question 83 of 105
83. Question
An organization implements port security on its network switches to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network. During a routine audit, the IT team discovers that several ports have been automatically disabled due to violations.
What is the most likely cause of these port shutdowns?Correct
The most likely cause is that the ports were receiving traffic from devices with multiple MAC addresses, triggering shutdown due to port security violations.
Incorrect
The most likely cause is that the ports were receiving traffic from devices with multiple MAC addresses, triggering shutdown due to port security violations.
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Question 84 of 105
84. Question
An organization is setting up a secure communication channel between its servers and client devices. The IT team generates a pair of cryptographic keys but encounters issues when attempting to securely share one of the keys with the client devices.
What is the most likely reason for this challenge?Correct
The organization used asymmetric encryption, where the public key must be distributed securely to clients, posing challenges in secure key sharing.
Incorrect
The organization used asymmetric encryption, where the public key must be distributed securely to clients, posing challenges in secure key sharing.
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Question 85 of 105
85. Question
Which of the following best describes the primary function of an ACL in network security?
Correct
An ACL filters network traffic based on predefined rules, allowing or denying packets based on criteria such as IP address or protocol.
Incorrect
An ACL filters network traffic based on predefined rules, allowing or denying packets based on criteria such as IP address or protocol.
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Question 86 of 105
86. Question
Which of the following methods is commonly used to implement content filtering in a modern network?
Correct
DNS filtering blocks access to domains associated with harmful content, effectively implementing content filtering.
Incorrect
DNS filtering blocks access to domains associated with harmful content, effectively implementing content filtering.
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Question 87 of 105
87. Question
Which of the following best describes the primary function of a DMZ in network security?
Correct
A DMZ serves as a buffer zone hosting public-facing services while protecting the internal network from external threats.
Incorrect
A DMZ serves as a buffer zone hosting public-facing services while protecting the internal network from external threats.
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Question 88 of 105
88. Question
Which of the following is the FIRST step when identifying symptoms of a network problem?
Correct
Documenting the time and duration of the issue helps correlate the problem with specific events essential for diagnosis.
Incorrect
Documenting the time and duration of the issue helps correlate the problem with specific events essential for diagnosis.
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Question 89 of 105
89. Question
When troubleshooting a network issue, which approach involves starting with the application layer and working towards the physical layer?
Correct
The top-to-bottom approach starts at the application layer and works downward to identify the issue.
Incorrect
The top-to-bottom approach starts at the application layer and works downward to identify the issue.
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Question 90 of 105
90. Question
You are tasked with resolving a complex network issue that involves multiple departments.
What should be your first consideration when developing a plan of action?Correct
Determine how each department will be affected by the resolution process to prioritize steps effectively.
Incorrect
Determine how each department will be affected by the resolution process to prioritize steps effectively.
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Question 91 of 105
91. Question
What is the MOST critical step to take immediately after implementing a solution?
Correct
Verify that the key services affected by the change are operational, confirming the solution’s success.
Incorrect
Verify that the key services affected by the change are operational, confirming the solution’s success.
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Question 92 of 105
92. Question
A network technician is troubleshooting a slow connection and discovers that Cat 5 cables were used instead of specified Cat 6 cables. What is the most significant impact?
Correct
Using Cat 5 cables could limit the network’s ability to support gigabit speeds, leading to bottlenecks.
Incorrect
Using Cat 5 cables could limit the network’s ability to support gigabit speeds, leading to bottlenecks.
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Question 93 of 105
93. Question
Which of the following is a common symptom of improper cable termination?
Correct
Intermittent connectivity with no clear pattern is a common symptom of improper termination.
Incorrect
Intermittent connectivity with no clear pattern is a common symptom of improper termination.
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Question 94 of 105
94. Question
A network engineer observes an increasing number of giants on an interface connected to a server. The MTU size is correctly configured on both server and switch. What is the MOST likely cause of these giants?
Correct
A malfunctioning NIC on the server is the most likely cause when MTU is correctly set and giants occur.
Incorrect
A malfunctioning NIC on the server is the most likely cause when MTU is correctly set and giants occur.
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Question 95 of 105
95. Question
What is the MOST likely consequence of a switch exceeding its PoE power budget?
Correct
Some connected devices may stop receiving power if PoE power budget is exceeded.
Incorrect
Some connected devices may stop receiving power if PoE power budget is exceeded.
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Question 96 of 105
96. Question
During network troubleshooting, an engineer notices that a port on one of the switches is neither forwarding traffic nor participating in the network. The port is not administratively down. What is the MOST likely role of this port in STP?
Correct
The port is most likely a blocking port in STP, preventing network loops by not forwarding traffic but listening for BPDUs.
Incorrect
The port is most likely a blocking port in STP, preventing network loops by not forwarding traffic but listening for BPDUs.
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Question 97 of 105
97. Question
Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a routing table to incorrectly direct traffic?
Correct
A missing or misconfigured default route can cause incorrect routing, especially for undefined destination networks.
Incorrect
A missing or misconfigured default route can cause incorrect routing, especially for undefined destination networks.
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Question 98 of 105
98. Question
A user reports that they cannot access external websites, but they can still connect to internal company resources. After verifying the user’s IP address is correct, what should the network administrator check next to resolve the issue?
Correct
The administrator should verify the default gateway configuration on the user’s device, as it determines access to external networks.
Incorrect
The administrator should verify the default gateway configuration on the user’s device, as it determines access to external networks.
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Question 99 of 105
99. Question
Which of the following is the MOST common symptom of an incorrect subnet mask on a client device?
Correct
An incorrect subnet mask often causes a device to communicate with some local devices but not others.
Incorrect
An incorrect subnet mask often causes a device to communicate with some local devices but not others.
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Question 100 of 105
100. Question
A network experiencing slow performance has several high-bandwidth applications running simultaneously. One application is consuming an unusually large amount of bandwidth, causing contention. What should the network administrator investigate FIRST to resolve this issue?
Correct
The application’s configuration and its network traffic impact should be investigated first to identify misconfiguration or abnormal behavior.
Incorrect
The application’s configuration and its network traffic impact should be investigated first to identify misconfiguration or abnormal behavior.
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Question 101 of 105
101. Question
A network administrator is investigating a significant drop in throughput on a critical network link. The link is operational but throughput is below expected. What should the administrator check FIRST?
Correct
Verify the speed and duplex settings on both ends of the link, as mismatches commonly cause reduced throughput.
Incorrect
Verify the speed and duplex settings on both ends of the link, as mismatches commonly cause reduced throughput.
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Question 102 of 105
102. Question
A network administrator notices intermittent packet loss across several network segments. After ruling out cable/device issues, what is the MOST likely cause?
Correct
Network congestion during peak hours is the most likely cause of intermittent packet loss.
Incorrect
Network congestion during peak hours is the most likely cause of intermittent packet loss.
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Question 103 of 105
103. Question
What is one of the BEST practices when using a protocol analyzer for network troubleshooting?
Correct
Filter the captured data to focus on relevant protocols, making analysis efficient and targeted.
Incorrect
Filter the captured data to focus on relevant protocols, making analysis efficient and targeted.
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Question 104 of 105
104. Question
What is one of the BEST practices when using Nmap for network discovery?
Correct
Limit the scope of Nmap scans to specific IP ranges or subnets for efficiency and to avoid overwhelming the network.
Incorrect
Limit the scope of Nmap scans to specific IP ranges or subnets for efficiency and to avoid overwhelming the network.
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Question 105 of 105
105. Question
A network administrator wants to prevent IP conflicts between static IPs and dynamic DHCP assignments. What is the BEST approach?
Correct
Exclude static IP addresses from the DHCP pool to avoid conflicts between static and dynamic IP assignments.
Incorrect
Exclude static IP addresses from the DHCP pool to avoid conflicts between static and dynamic IP assignments.
Understanding the N10-008 Exam Domains
The CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) exam covers five primary domains, each weighted differently in the scoring process. Networking Fundamentals comprises 24% of the exam and covers essential concepts like the OSI model, networking topologies, and cable types. Network Implementations accounts for 19% and focuses on routing technologies, switching, and wireless standards. Network Operations represents 16% of the exam, testing your knowledge of documentation, monitoring, and remote access methods.
Network Security makes up 19% of the exam content, examining your understanding of security concepts, network hardening techniques, and physical security measures. The final domain, Network Troubleshooting, constitutes 22% of the exam and evaluates your ability to diagnose and resolve common networking issues using systematic methodologies. A comprehensive CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) should proportionally represent these domains, giving you adequate exposure to each topic area based on its weight in the actual certification exam.
Key Features of Effective Practice Tests
Not all practice tests are created equal. The most valuable CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) resources include detailed explanations for both correct and incorrect answers, helping you understand the reasoning behind each solution. This deeper learning approach prevents you from simply memorizing answers without grasping the underlying concepts. Look for practice tests that explain not just what the answer is, but why other options are incorrect, as this reinforces your understanding of the material.
Performance-based questions represent one of the most challenging aspects of the N10-008 exam. Quality practice tests include simulations that require you to configure routers, troubleshoot network diagrams, or identify cable types based on visual representations. These interactive elements prepare you for the hands-on nature of the actual exam, where you might need to drag and drop network components, complete command-line tasks, or analyze network traffic captures.
How to Maximize Your Practice Test Results?
Taking a CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) without a strategic approach wastes valuable study time. Begin by taking a diagnostic practice test under exam conditions to establish your baseline knowledge. Time yourself strictly, avoid looking up answers, and eliminate all distractions to simulate the actual testing environment. This initial assessment reveals your strengths and weaknesses across all five exam domains, allowing you to create a targeted study plan.
After completing each practice test, spend quality time reviewing every question, especially those you answered incorrectly or guessed on. Create flashcards or notes for topics that challenge you, and return to your study materials to reinforce these areas. As you progress through multiple practice tests, track your scores to monitor improvement over time. Most candidates benefit from taking at least five to seven full-length practice tests before attempting the actual certification exam, ensuring they consistently score above the passing threshold of 720 out of 900 points.
Common Pitfalls to Avoid When Using Practice Tests
Many certification candidates make the mistake of relying exclusively on practice tests without studying the underlying concepts. While practice tests are invaluable assessment tools, they work best when combined with comprehensive study materials such as official CompTIA study guides, video courses, and hands-on lab exercises. Memorizing specific practice test questions and answers without understanding the concepts leads to poor performance on the actual exam, which contains entirely different questions covering the same material.
Another common error is taking too many practice tests from the same source. Each practice test provider has a finite question bank, and repeatedly seeing the same questions creates a false sense of preparedness. Diversify your practice test sources to expose yourself to different question styles, phrasings, and perspectives on the exam objectives. This variety better prepares you for the unexpected variations you’ll encounter on the official CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008).
Timing Your Practice Test Strategy
Strategic timing significantly impacts the effectiveness of your CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) preparation. Many experts recommend beginning with topic-specific quizzes early in your study journey, focusing on individual domains as you complete the corresponding study material. These shorter, focused assessments help solidify new information before moving to the next topic, building a strong foundation incrementally.
Reserve full-length practice tests for the final weeks of your preparation when you’ve covered all exam objectives at least once. Taking a comprehensive practice test too early can be discouraging and doesn’t accurately reflect your true potential after completing your studies. Plan to take your final practice test no more than a few days before your scheduled exam date, ensuring the material remains fresh in your mind while allowing time to address any last-minute weak areas.
Interpreting Your Practice Test Scores
Understanding your CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) scores requires more than just looking at the overall percentage. Analyze your performance by domain to identify specific areas needing attention. If you consistently score well in Networking Fundamentals but struggle with Network Security questions, you know exactly where to focus your remaining study time. This granular analysis makes your preparation more efficient and effective.
Remember that practice test scores don’t always perfectly predict actual exam performance. Most quality practice tests are designed to be slightly more difficult than the real exam, preparing you for worst-case scenarios. If you’re consistently scoring 80% or higher on reputable practice tests, you’re likely ready for the actual certification exam. However, don’t schedule your exam until you feel genuinely confident in your abilities across all domains, as the CompTIA Network+ certification requires a solid understanding of networking concepts, not just test-taking skills.
Building Real-World Skills Beyond Practice Tests
While the CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) prepares you for certification success, the ultimate goal is developing practical networking skills that serve you throughout your career. Supplement your practice tests with hands-on experience using network simulation tools, setting up home labs, or volunteering for networking projects in your current role. This practical application reinforces theoretical knowledge and gives you concrete examples to draw upon when answering scenario-based exam questions.
The CompTIA Network+ certification opens doors to numerous IT career paths, including network administrator, systems administrator, network engineer, and help desk technician roles. By thoroughly preparing with practice tests and gaining practical experience, you’re not just earning a certification—you’re building a skill set that employers value and that will serve as the foundation for advanced certifications like CompTIA Security+, CCNA, or other specialized networking credentials.
Final Thoughts on Practice Test Preparation
Success on the CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) exam requires dedication, strategic preparation, and consistent practice. The CompTIA Network+ Practice Test (N10-008) serves as both a measuring tool and a learning resource, helping you gauge your readiness while reinforcing essential concepts. By incorporating quality practice tests into a comprehensive study plan that includes official study materials, hands-on labs, and real-world experience, you maximize your chances of passing the exam and beginning a rewarding career in network administration and support.
Remember that certification is a journey, not a destination. The knowledge you gain while preparing for the CompTIA Network+ exam forms the foundation for continued learning and professional growth in the ever-evolving field of information technology. Approach your practice tests with a growth mindset, viewing each mistake as a learning opportunity rather than a failure, and you’ll find yourself well-prepared not just for the exam, but for the networking challenges you’ll face throughout your career.