Master the CompTIA A+ certification with our comprehensive free CompTIA A+ Practice Tests. Includes sample questions, study tips, exam strategies, and everything you need to pass Core 1 and Core 2 exams.
The CompTIA A+ certification is the gold standard entry-level credential for IT professionals, validating foundational skills in hardware, software, networking, and troubleshooting. With over 1 million IT professionals certified worldwide, A+ opens doors to lucrative tech careers with an average salary of $50,000-$65,000 for entry-level positions.
Creating a structured study schedule that incorporates free CompTIA A+ practice tests significantly increases your chances of first attempt success. Begin by taking a diagnostic practice exam to establish your baseline knowledge across all exam domains including mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, and cloud computing. Dedicate specific study blocks to weak areas identified through practice testing, then reassess with additional free exams to measure progress. Schedule practice tests at regular intervals throughout your preparation period rather than cramming them all at the end. Mix different free resources to expose yourself to varied question styles and explanations, preventing overreliance on any single source.
As your exam date approaches, increase practice test frequency to build stamina for the 90-minute testing sessions and fine-tune your ability to quickly eliminate incorrect answers using test-taking strategies specific to CompTIA certification exams.

However, passing the CompTIA A+ exam requires more than just reading study guides. CompTIA A+ Practice Tests are the most effective way to prepare, helping you identify knowledge gaps, build exam confidence, and familiarize yourself with question formats. This comprehensive guide explores everything you need to know about CompTIA A+ practice tests and includes sample questions to jumpstart your preparation.
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                        Question 1 of 901. QuestionWhich of the following network configurations is used to identify your computer’s individual host identifier and your computer’s network identifier? Correct
 The subnet mask is used to identify the host identifier and the network identifier uniquely in combination with the IP address. The subnet mask is used by the TCP/IP protocol to determine whether a host is on the local subnet or a remote network. The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a legacy computer name registration and resolution service that maps computer NetBIOS names to IP addresses. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. Incorrect
 The subnet mask is used to identify the host identifier and the network identifier uniquely in combination with the IP address. The subnet mask is used by the TCP/IP protocol to determine whether a host is on the local subnet or a remote network. The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) is a legacy computer name registration and resolution service that maps computer NetBIOS names to IP addresses. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. 
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                        Question 2 of 902. QuestionYour physical security manager, Janice, wants to ensure she can detect any unauthorized access to the data center. Which technology should be used to meet her requirement? Correct
 Since she requires to detect unauthorized access, video surveillance should be utilized. Closed-circuit television is a type of video surveillance where video cameras transmit a signal to a specific place using a limited set of monitors. If she were trying to prevent access from occurring, the other three options would provide that. Still, they cannot detect unauthorized access (for example, if the attacker stole a valid smart card or access badge). A biometric lock is any lock that can be activated by biometric features, such as a fingerprint, voiceprint, or retina scan. Biometric locks make it more difficult for someone to counterfeit the key used to open the lock or a user’s account. A smart card is a form of hardware token. A smart card, chip card, PIV card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A badge reader can be used to read a security badge using RFID, a smart card, or a barcode to authenticate a user. Incorrect
 Since she requires to detect unauthorized access, video surveillance should be utilized. Closed-circuit television is a type of video surveillance where video cameras transmit a signal to a specific place using a limited set of monitors. If she were trying to prevent access from occurring, the other three options would provide that. Still, they cannot detect unauthorized access (for example, if the attacker stole a valid smart card or access badge). A biometric lock is any lock that can be activated by biometric features, such as a fingerprint, voiceprint, or retina scan. Biometric locks make it more difficult for someone to counterfeit the key used to open the lock or a user’s account. A smart card is a form of hardware token. A smart card, chip card, PIV card, or integrated circuit card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card-sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. In high-security environments, employee badges may contain a smart card embedded chip that must be inserted into a smart card reader to log in or access information on the system. A badge reader can be used to read a security badge using RFID, a smart card, or a barcode to authenticate a user. 
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                        Question 3 of 903. QuestionWhich of the following would NOT be included in a company’s password policy? Correct
 A password policy is a set of rules designed to enhance computer security by encouraging users to employ strong passwords and use them properly. A password policy is often part of an organization’s official regulations and may be taught as part of security awareness training. It contains items like password complexity, password age, and password history requirements. Incorrect
 A password policy is a set of rules designed to enhance computer security by encouraging users to employ strong passwords and use them properly. A password policy is often part of an organization’s official regulations and may be taught as part of security awareness training. It contains items like password complexity, password age, and password history requirements. 
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                        Question 4 of 904. QuestionYou recently moved 1.5 TB of data from your office’s file server to a new 16 TB NAS and decommissioned the old file server. You verified all users had been given the same permissions to the new file shares on the NAS as they had on the old server. The users are receiving an error stating, “Windows cannot access \\server10\shared\” every time they click the Share drive icon on their desktop. What is MOST likely the source of this error? Correct
 Based on the error shown, it appears that the users are still mapped to the old server and not the new NAS. This is a common issue and oversight that occurs when companies migrate from one server to another. Even if every computer has an S:\ (share drive) shown, it is just a link to a network resource (like \\server10\shared\). If the new server is not named “server10” and is called “server11”, then the mapping needs to be redone to reflect \\server11\shared, for example. Incorrect
 Based on the error shown, it appears that the users are still mapped to the old server and not the new NAS. This is a common issue and oversight that occurs when companies migrate from one server to another. Even if every computer has an S:\ (share drive) shown, it is just a link to a network resource (like \\server10\shared\). If the new server is not named “server10” and is called “server11”, then the mapping needs to be redone to reflect \\server11\shared, for example. 
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                        Question 5 of 905. QuestionYou are applying for a job at a cybersecurity firm. The application requests you enter your social security number, date of birth, and email address to conduct a background check as part of the hiring process. Which of the following types of information have you been asked to provide? Correct
 Personally identifiable information (PII) is data used to identify, contact, or locate an individual. Information such as social security number (SSN), name, date of birth, email address, telephone number, street address, and biometric data is considered PII. Protected health information (PHI) refers to medical and insurance records, plus associated hospital and laboratory test results. Proprietary information or intellectual property (IP) is information created and owned by the company, typically about the products or services that they make or perform. Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) is federal non-classified information that must be safeguarded by implementing a uniform set of requirements and information security controls to secure sensitive government information. Incorrect
 Personally identifiable information (PII) is data used to identify, contact, or locate an individual. Information such as social security number (SSN), name, date of birth, email address, telephone number, street address, and biometric data is considered PII. Protected health information (PHI) refers to medical and insurance records, plus associated hospital and laboratory test results. Proprietary information or intellectual property (IP) is information created and owned by the company, typically about the products or services that they make or perform. Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) is federal non-classified information that must be safeguarded by implementing a uniform set of requirements and information security controls to secure sensitive government information. 
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                        Question 6 of 906. QuestionA company is implementing enhanced user authentication for system administrators accessing the company’s confidential servers. They intend to use two-factor authentication to accomplish this. Which of these BEST represents two-factor authentication? Correct
 Two-factor authentication (also known as 2FA) is a method of confirming a user’s claimed identity by using a combination of two different factors: (1) something you know, (2) something you have, or (3) something you are. Out of the options provided, only a key fob (something you have) and a password (something you know) meet the requirements of 2FA. If you have two factors from the same type/category, like something you know (username and password), this is only considered a single factor of authentication. Incorrect
 Two-factor authentication (also known as 2FA) is a method of confirming a user’s claimed identity by using a combination of two different factors: (1) something you know, (2) something you have, or (3) something you are. Out of the options provided, only a key fob (something you have) and a password (something you know) meet the requirements of 2FA. If you have two factors from the same type/category, like something you know (username and password), this is only considered a single factor of authentication. 
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                        Question 7 of 907. QuestionJack has asked you for a recommendation on which word processing software they should install. There are four different software packages they are considering, and each uses a different licensing type. Jack states he wants to get a copy of Microsoft Word so their son can create reports for school. Which of the following would MOST likely be the best option for them? Correct
 A personal license is an option for private individuals who purchase a license with their own funds and solely for their own use. Personal licenses are not to be purchased, refunded, or in any way financed by companies. A business license is the standard licensing option for organizations and business entities. With Microsoft, a company can purchase anywhere from 1 to 300 user licenses under the business license program. An enterprise license is like a business license, but for an unlimited number of users and is designed for large corporate and government networks. Open-source is software that also makes the program code used to design it available. Generally, open-source software is free to use and distribute, but you may need to pay for ongoing support if you have technical issues. The idea is that other programmers can investigate the program and make it more stable and useful. An open-source license does not forbid commercial use of applications derived from the original, but it is likely to impose the same conditions on further redistributions. Incorrect
 A personal license is an option for private individuals who purchase a license with their own funds and solely for their own use. Personal licenses are not to be purchased, refunded, or in any way financed by companies. A business license is the standard licensing option for organizations and business entities. With Microsoft, a company can purchase anywhere from 1 to 300 user licenses under the business license program. An enterprise license is like a business license, but for an unlimited number of users and is designed for large corporate and government networks. Open-source is software that also makes the program code used to design it available. Generally, open-source software is free to use and distribute, but you may need to pay for ongoing support if you have technical issues. The idea is that other programmers can investigate the program and make it more stable and useful. An open-source license does not forbid commercial use of applications derived from the original, but it is likely to impose the same conditions on further redistributions. 
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                        Question 8 of 908. QuestionYour company is concerned about the possibility of theft of sensitive information from their systems. The IT Director has directed that access to all USB storage devices be blocked on all corporate workstations to prevent this. The workstation should still use other USB devices, like scanners, printers, keyboards, and mice. Which of the following command-line tools should you use to install a Group Policy (GPO) to all workstations across the network to disable the use of USB storage devices? Correct
 The gpupdate command refreshes a computer’s local Group Policy and any Active Directory-based group policies. This command works on Windows systems. The gpupdate command can be used to restrict access to USB removable storage devices (like USB thumb drives and hard drives). In some organizations, USB storage devices are blocked for security reasons to prevent security leakage of confidential data and the penetration of viruses into the internal corporate network. A Group Policy is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization. In an active directory environment, Group Policy is applied to users or computers based on their membership in sites, domains, or organizational units. The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer. Because you can apply overlapping policy settings to any computer or user, the Group Policy feature generates a resulting set of policy settings when the user logs on. The gpresult command displays the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on the computer for the specified user when the user logged on. The diskpart command is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Microsoft operating systems. You can use it to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions. The system file checker (SFC) command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line. Incorrect
 The gpupdate command refreshes a computer’s local Group Policy and any Active Directory-based group policies. This command works on Windows systems. The gpupdate command can be used to restrict access to USB removable storage devices (like USB thumb drives and hard drives). In some organizations, USB storage devices are blocked for security reasons to prevent security leakage of confidential data and the penetration of viruses into the internal corporate network. A Group Policy is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization. In an active directory environment, Group Policy is applied to users or computers based on their membership in sites, domains, or organizational units. The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer. Because you can apply overlapping policy settings to any computer or user, the Group Policy feature generates a resulting set of policy settings when the user logs on. The gpresult command displays the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on the computer for the specified user when the user logged on. The diskpart command is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Microsoft operating systems. You can use it to view, create, delete, and modify a computer’s disk partitions. The system file checker (SFC) command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line. 
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                        Question 9 of 909. QuestionWhich of the following is the purpose of an ESD mat? Correct
 An electrostatic discharge (ESD) mat is made from materials that dissipate static to protect sensitive electronic equipment and components. An electrostatic discharge (ESD) is the release of a charge from metal or plastic surfaces that occurs when a potential difference is formed between the charged object and an oppositely charged conductive object. This electrical discharge can damage silicon chips and computer components if they are exposed to it. Incorrect
 An electrostatic discharge (ESD) mat is made from materials that dissipate static to protect sensitive electronic equipment and components. An electrostatic discharge (ESD) is the release of a charge from metal or plastic surfaces that occurs when a potential difference is formed between the charged object and an oppositely charged conductive object. This electrical discharge can damage silicon chips and computer components if they are exposed to it. 
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                        Question 10 of 9010. QuestionWhich of the following file types are commonly used to create applications that can be run on Linux, macOS, and Windows? Correct
 Python is a general-purpose programming language that can develop many different kinds of applications. It is designed to be easy to read, and the programs use fewer lines of code compared to other programming languages. The code runs in an interpreter. Python is preinstalled on many Linux distributions and can be installed on Windows. Python scripts are saved using the .py extension. A shell script is a file that contains a list of commands to be read and executed by the shell in Linux and macOS. A .sh file is used for a shell script and its first line always begins with #!/bin/bash that designates the interpreter. This line instructs the operating system to execute the script. Shell scripts allow you to perform various functions. These functions include automation of commands and tasks of system administration and troubleshooting, creating simple applications, and manipulating text or files. VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. Network administrators often use VBScript to perform repetitive administrative tasks. With VBScript, you can run your scripts from either the command-line or the Windows graphical interface. Scripts that you write must be run within a host environment. Windows 10 provides Internet Explorer, IIS, and Windows Script Host (WSH) for this purpose. Windows PowerShell enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 7 and later. It is fully integrated with the operating system and supports both remote execution and scripting. Microsoft provides the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) to help create and manage your Windows PowerShell scripts. If you want to save a series of PowerShell commands in a file to rerun them later, you effectively create a PowerShell script by creating a text file with a .ps1 extension. The file can contain a series of PowerShell commands, with each command appearing on a separate line. Incorrect
 Python is a general-purpose programming language that can develop many different kinds of applications. It is designed to be easy to read, and the programs use fewer lines of code compared to other programming languages. The code runs in an interpreter. Python is preinstalled on many Linux distributions and can be installed on Windows. Python scripts are saved using the .py extension. A shell script is a file that contains a list of commands to be read and executed by the shell in Linux and macOS. A .sh file is used for a shell script and its first line always begins with #!/bin/bash that designates the interpreter. This line instructs the operating system to execute the script. Shell scripts allow you to perform various functions. These functions include automation of commands and tasks of system administration and troubleshooting, creating simple applications, and manipulating text or files. VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. Network administrators often use VBScript to perform repetitive administrative tasks. With VBScript, you can run your scripts from either the command-line or the Windows graphical interface. Scripts that you write must be run within a host environment. Windows 10 provides Internet Explorer, IIS, and Windows Script Host (WSH) for this purpose. Windows PowerShell enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 7 and later. It is fully integrated with the operating system and supports both remote execution and scripting. Microsoft provides the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) to help create and manage your Windows PowerShell scripts. If you want to save a series of PowerShell commands in a file to rerun them later, you effectively create a PowerShell script by creating a text file with a .ps1 extension. The file can contain a series of PowerShell commands, with each command appearing on a separate line. 
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                        Question 11 of 9011. QuestionA home user contacts the help desk and states that their desktop applications are running very slowly… Which of the following should the technician attempt to perform NEXT to resolve the user’s issue? Correct
 Based on the symptoms, it appears that the system may be infected with malware. Therefore, it would be best to attempt to remediate the system by updating the anti-virus, performing a full system scan, and verifying that the web browser and email client’s settings are correct. Incorrect
 Based on the symptoms, it appears that the system may be infected with malware. Therefore, it would be best to attempt to remediate the system by updating the anti-virus, performing a full system scan, and verifying that the web browser and email client’s settings are correct. 
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                        Question 12 of 9012. QuestionDion Training wants to implement a new wireless network in their offices… Which of the following types would support encryption for traffic being sent and received over the network while still allowing users to connect to the open network without a password, passphrase, or digital certificate? Correct
 One of the features of WPA3 (WIFI6) is enhanced open. Enhanced Open enables encryption for traffic being sent and received over a wireless network when still using open authentication. Incorrect
 One of the features of WPA3 (WIFI6) is enhanced open. Enhanced Open enables encryption for traffic being sent and received over a wireless network when still using open authentication. 
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                        Question 13 of 9013. QuestionDavid is troubleshooting a new Android application his company is creating… Which of the following should David enable on the device? Correct
 Developer mode is used on an Android device to show additional diagnostic information when using apps or making network connections. Incorrect
 Developer mode is used on an Android device to show additional diagnostic information when using apps or making network connections. 
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                        Question 14 of 9014. QuestionA customer is complaining that they cannot connect to the local network share drive… Which of the following is the problem with this workstation? Correct
 Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. Incorrect
 Since the customer’s IP address is 169.254.34.12, it is an APIPA address. Since the workstation has an APIPA address, it means the DHCP server was unreachable. 
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                        Question 15 of 9015. QuestionA user reports frequent security warnings from outdated antivirus software. What should be done to resolve this? Correct
 Automatic updates ensure the antivirus program receives the latest threat definitions, maintaining protection against new malware. Incorrect
 Automatic updates ensure the antivirus program receives the latest threat definitions, maintaining protection against new malware. 
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                        Question 16 of 9016. QuestionA system administrator has noticed that an employee’s account has been attempting to log in to multiple workstations and servers across the network… Which of the following actions should the administrator do to this employee’s account in Active Directory? Correct
 The system administrator should disable the user’s account to prevent further login attempts. Incorrect
 The system administrator should disable the user’s account to prevent further login attempts. 
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                        Question 17 of 9017. QuestionA company wants to ensure that its mobile devices are configured to protect any data stored on them if they are lost or stolen. Which of the following should you enable and enforce through their MDM? Correct
 Full storage encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. Incorrect
 Full storage encryption is used to encrypt the user and system data stored in the device’s internal storage. 
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                        Question 18 of 9018. QuestionTim connects his Windows 10 laptop to his office’s wireless network to print out a report for his boss. Which type of network should he select to discover the printer on the office’s wireless network? Correct
 Tim should select the private network type when connecting to the wireless network in his office so that he can access the networked printer. Incorrect
 Tim should select the private network type when connecting to the wireless network in his office so that he can access the networked printer. 
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                        Question 19 of 9019. QuestionA system administrator needs to remotely execute PowerShell commands on multiple Windows servers without requiring direct remote desktop access… Which of the following tools would BEST meet this requirement? Correct
 Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is the best choice because it allows administrators to execute remote PowerShell commands and manage Windows systems securely over a network using web-based protocols. Incorrect
 Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is the best choice because it allows administrators to execute remote PowerShell commands and manage Windows systems securely over a network using web-based protocols. 
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                        Question 20 of 9020. QuestionWhich of the following commands is used on a Linux system to change a file’s permissions or directory on a system? Correct
 The chmod command sets the permissions of files or directories on a Linux system. Incorrect
 The chmod command sets the permissions of files or directories on a Linux system. 
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                        Question 21 of 9021. QuestionA manager wants employees to review a shared document without making changes. What is the best way to do this? Correct
 Setting a document to view-only prevents unauthorized changes while still allowing employees to read its contents. Printing copies removes collaboration features and prevents updates from being seen in real-time. Locking the document completely would block access, making it unusable for review. Relying on employees to avoid making changes does not enforce restrictions and may lead to accidental edits. Incorrect
 Setting a document to view-only prevents unauthorized changes while still allowing employees to read its contents. Printing copies removes collaboration features and prevents updates from being seen in real-time. Locking the document completely would block access, making it unusable for review. Relying on employees to avoid making changes does not enforce restrictions and may lead to accidental edits. 
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                        Question 22 of 9022. QuestionEdward has just returned to his office after a two-week vacation. When he logs into his email client to access his company email, he notices that he cannot see the shared Customer Service inbox folder in his email client. He contacts the help desk, and they verify that his account is still connected to the domain controller and that it can still send and receive emails successfully. What is the MOST likely happened during Edward’s vacation that caused the missing inbox folders in the email client? Correct
 While Edward was on vacation, the network file share’s permissions have likely been modified. Based on the fact that Edward’s account is connected to the domain and can send/receive emails, it is not his user account’s permissions causing the issue. The internet security options would also prevent him from sending/receiving mail, so that can be eliminated. Even if the operating system were updated, that would not affect the shared inboxes since they reside on the network file shares and not Edward’s computer. Incorrect
 While Edward was on vacation, the network file share’s permissions have likely been modified. Based on the fact that Edward’s account is connected to the domain and can send/receive emails, it is not his user account’s permissions causing the issue. The internet security options would also prevent him from sending/receiving mail, so that can be eliminated. Even if the operating system were updated, that would not affect the shared inboxes since they reside on the network file shares and not Edward’s computer. 
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                        Question 23 of 9023. QuestionAfter installing a recent Windows 11 update, Mortimer is now experiencing slow startup times and occasional “low memory” warnings, despite having 8 GB of RAM. He mentions that several startup applications are enabled, and the computer was working fine before the update. Which of the following would be the best solution to improve the startup time and resolve the memory warnings? Correct
 Disabling unnecessary startup programs improves boot times and reduces memory usage, especially after updates that may enable additional background processes. Uninstalling the update should be a last resort if performance remains poor. Upgrading RAM can help but isn’t necessary when sufficient memory is already present. A clean installation is a more time-consuming solution that should be reserved for persistent issues. Incorrect
 Disabling unnecessary startup programs improves boot times and reduces memory usage, especially after updates that may enable additional background processes. Uninstalling the update should be a last resort if performance remains poor. Upgrading RAM can help but isn’t necessary when sufficient memory is already present. A clean installation is a more time-consuming solution that should be reserved for persistent issues. 
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                        Question 24 of 9024. QuestionWhich RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server? Correct
 RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring. A RAID 1 provides mirroring but not striping. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity using a minimum of three disks. Incorrect
 RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring. A RAID 1 provides mirroring but not striping. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity using a minimum of three disks. 
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                        Question 25 of 9025. QuestionWhich of the following commands is used on a Linux system to copy a file from one directory to another directory? Correct
 The cp command is a command-line utility for copying files and directories. It supports moving one or more files or folders with options for taking backups and preserving attributes. Copies of files are independent of the original file, unlike the mv command. Incorrect
 The cp command is a command-line utility for copying files and directories. It supports moving one or more files or folders with options for taking backups and preserving attributes. Copies of files are independent of the original file, unlike the mv command. 
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                        Question 26 of 9026. QuestionWhich of the following file types are commonly used by scripts in a web page? Correct
 JavaScript is a scripting language that is designed to create interactive web-based content and web apps. The scripts are executed automatically by placing the script in the HTML code for a web page so that when the HTML code for the page loads, the script is run. JavaScript is stored in a .js file or as part of an HTML file. Incorrect
 JavaScript is a scripting language that is designed to create interactive web-based content and web apps. The scripts are executed automatically by placing the script in the HTML code for a web page so that when the HTML code for the page loads, the script is run. JavaScript is stored in a .js file or as part of an HTML file. 
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                        Question 27 of 9027. QuestionJason’s iPhone has not received any emails or SMS messages in the few 4 hours. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these issues? Correct
 Based on the symptoms, the most likely cause is an internet connectivity failure. Apple iPhones use internet connectivity and data to send their text messages by default. If the smartphone’s internet connection is offline, then the phone will not receive emails or SMS messages from other iPhone users. Incorrect
 Based on the symptoms, the most likely cause is an internet connectivity failure. Apple iPhones use internet connectivity and data to send their text messages by default. If the smartphone’s internet connection is offline, then the phone will not receive emails or SMS messages from other iPhone users. 
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                        Question 28 of 9028. QuestionA user reports that after logging into their Windows 11 computer, they are met with a black screen and a movable cursor. They add that no desktop icons or taskbar are visible. Which of the following is the best initial method for attempting to fix this? Correct
 Restarting the Windows Explorer process is the correct first step because the black screen with a cursor often indicates that explorer.exe did not start properly. Restarting it via Task Manager restores the desktop environment. Incorrect
 Restarting the Windows Explorer process is the correct first step because the black screen with a cursor often indicates that explorer.exe did not start properly. Restarting it via Task Manager restores the desktop environment. 
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                        Question 29 of 9029. QuestionSusan is installing several updates on a Windows computer. Nine of the updates were installed without any issues, but one update produced an error and failed to install. Susan restarts the computer as part of the troubleshooting process, and the computer automatically attempts to install the failed update again. Again, the update fails to install. What should Susan do NEXT? Correct
 If an automated system update fails to install, you should research the error number for the failed update to determine if the issue is a known error. Based on the error code, you can then determine the best method to overcome the issue. For example, a common cause of errors is inadequate space on the hard disk. Incorrect
 If an automated system update fails to install, you should research the error number for the failed update to determine if the issue is a known error. Based on the error code, you can then determine the best method to overcome the issue. For example, a common cause of errors is inadequate space on the hard disk. 
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                        Question 30 of 9030. QuestionWhich of the following types of attacks are usually used as part of an on-path attack? Correct
 Spoofing is often used to inject the attacker into the conversation path between the two parties. Spoofing is the act of disguising a communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source. An on-path attack is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. Incorrect
 Spoofing is often used to inject the attacker into the conversation path between the two parties. Spoofing is the act of disguising a communication from an unknown source as being from a known, trusted source. An on-path attack is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. 
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                        Question 31 of 9031. QuestionDion Training wants to upgrade its employees’ workstations from Windows 10 to Windows 11. All of the employees’ data and files are saved to the company’s shared drive. The technician has been told to choose an installation type that will delete all of the existing data, settings, and applications on the workstations during the upgrade. Which of the following types of upgrades or installations should you perform on the workstations? Correct
 A clean install is an installation of the new operating system on a new computer or a computer that has been recently formatted. A clean install will completely replace the operating system software on the computer with the new operating system. During a clean install, all of the user’s data, settings, and applications will be deleted. An in-place upgrade will preserve applications and data. A refresh installation keeps user data and apps. A repair installation replaces OS files without deleting data. Incorrect
 A clean install is an installation of the new operating system on a new computer or a computer that has been recently formatted. A clean install will completely replace the operating system software on the computer with the new operating system. During a clean install, all of the user’s data, settings, and applications will be deleted. An in-place upgrade will preserve applications and data. A refresh installation keeps user data and apps. A repair installation replaces OS files without deleting data. 
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                        Question 32 of 9032. QuestionYour Android device’s battery is advertised to last 12 hours, but it drains almost completely within 90 minutes. What should you do FIRST to try and solve this problem? Correct
 If your battery is dying faster than in the past, check whether apps are using too much battery. You can force stop or uninstall problem apps. A display set too bright won’t kill a battery in 90 minutes. Rebooting or enabling airplane mode won’t resolve underlying app or malware issues. Incorrect
 If your battery is dying faster than in the past, check whether apps are using too much battery. You can force stop or uninstall problem apps. A display set too bright won’t kill a battery in 90 minutes. Rebooting or enabling airplane mode won’t resolve underlying app or malware issues. 
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                        Question 33 of 9033. QuestionAfter upgrading their laptop from Windows 10 to Windows 11, a coworker now reports that several applications crash upon launch. The issue primarily affects older software used for work, while newer applications function normally. They mention they did not check software compatibility before upgrading but need these legacy programs to work without constant crashes. What would be the best solution to resolve the application crashing mentioned? Correct
 Compatibility mode in Windows 11 allows legacy applications to run as if they are on an earlier version of Windows, helping resolve crashes related to older software. Reinstalling Windows 10 is unnecessary unless compatibility mode fails. Adding RAM won’t fix compatibility. Disk Cleanup won’t resolve crashes. Incorrect
 Compatibility mode in Windows 11 allows legacy applications to run as if they are on an earlier version of Windows, helping resolve crashes related to older software. Reinstalling Windows 10 is unnecessary unless compatibility mode fails. Adding RAM won’t fix compatibility. Disk Cleanup won’t resolve crashes. 
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                        Question 34 of 9034. QuestionWhich of the following MacOS features allows the user to create a user account that is used to sign in to the App Store, iCloud, and iTunes? Correct
 An Apple ID is a user account on an Apple device used to sign in to the App Store, access iCloud, and more. Spotlight is the macOS search feature. Keychain manages cached passwords. Passwd changes local system account passwords. Incorrect
 An Apple ID is a user account on an Apple device used to sign in to the App Store, access iCloud, and more. Spotlight is the macOS search feature. Keychain manages cached passwords. Passwd changes local system account passwords. 
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                        Question 35 of 9035. QuestionWhich of the following should be configured on a macOS system to enable the Smart Zoom feature on a user’s MacBook trackpad? Correct
 Gestures are finger movements on a MacBook trackpad or Magic Trackpad used to control macOS features like Smart Zoom, Rotate, and Scroll Direction. Motions, signals, and movements are not valid macOS trackpad settings. Incorrect
 Gestures are finger movements on a MacBook trackpad or Magic Trackpad used to control macOS features like Smart Zoom, Rotate, and Scroll Direction. Motions, signals, and movements are not valid macOS trackpad settings. 
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                        Question 36 of 9036. QuestionWhich of the following password policies defines the types of alphanumeric characters required to be utilized in a user’s password? Correct
 Password complexity ensures passwords include uppercase, lowercase, numeric, and special characters. Password length sets minimum size. Password history prevents reuse. Password expiration defines reset timelines. Incorrect
 Password complexity ensures passwords include uppercase, lowercase, numeric, and special characters. Password length sets minimum size. Password history prevents reuse. Password expiration defines reset timelines. 
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                        Question 37 of 9037. QuestionWhich of the following backup rotation schemes requires backups to be stored to at least two different types of media? Correct
 The 3-2-1 backup rule requires 3 copies of data, stored on 2 different types of media, with 1 copy off-site. FIFO overwrites the oldest backups. GFS uses grandfather-father-son scheduling. Tower of Hanoi rotates tapes to extend lifespan. Incorrect
 The 3-2-1 backup rule requires 3 copies of data, stored on 2 different types of media, with 1 copy off-site. FIFO overwrites the oldest backups. GFS uses grandfather-father-son scheduling. Tower of Hanoi rotates tapes to extend lifespan. 
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                        Question 38 of 9038. QuestionTony works for a company as a cybersecurity analyst. His company runs a website that allows public postings. Recently, users have started complaining about the website having pop-up messages asking for their username and password. Simultaneously, your security team has noticed a large increase in the number of compromised user accounts on the system. What type of attack is most likely the cause of both of these events? Correct
 This is an example of a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack, where an attacker injects malicious JavaScript into web pages to create pop-ups and steal credentials. CSRF forces unintended actions. A rootkit hides system access. SQL injection targets databases, not pop-up credential theft. Incorrect
 This is an example of a cross-site scripting (XSS) attack, where an attacker injects malicious JavaScript into web pages to create pop-ups and steal credentials. CSRF forces unintended actions. A rootkit hides system access. SQL injection targets databases, not pop-up credential theft. 
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                        Question 39 of 9039. QuestionWhich partition of the hard drive is concealed from the user in the File Explorer within Windows 10 and is only used when imaging the computer back to its factory default state? Correct
 The recovery partition contains a system image used to restore the PC to factory state. Swap partitions are for Linux memory management. Primary partitions are limited to four under MBR. Extended partitions hold logical drives, not recovery images. Incorrect
 The recovery partition contains a system image used to restore the PC to factory state. Swap partitions are for Linux memory management. Primary partitions are limited to four under MBR. Extended partitions hold logical drives, not recovery images. 
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                        Question 40 of 9040. QuestionA user’s personal settings are not showing up on their computer. You suspect that their profile has become corrupted within Windows. You attempt to look at their profile file but cannot find it in their profile directory. Which of the following options do you need to configure to see this file? Correct
 Folder Options (File Explorer Options) allows you to enable viewing hidden files such as ntuser.dat, which stores user profile settings. User Accounts manages accounts. Internet Options controls browsing settings. Display Settings change monitor resolution and appearance. Incorrect
 Folder Options (File Explorer Options) allows you to enable viewing hidden files such as ntuser.dat, which stores user profile settings. User Accounts manages accounts. Internet Options controls browsing settings. Display Settings change monitor resolution and appearance. 
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                        Question 41 of 9041. QuestionYour mother says there is something wrong with her computer, but unfortunately, she doesn’t know how to fix it. She asks if you can remotely connect to her computer and see if you can fix it. Which of the following technologies would BEST allow you to remotely access her computer and interact with her Windows 10 laptop? Correct
 Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft protocol designed to facilitate secure and encrypted remote access with a graphical interface, making it the best choice here. Incorrect
 Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft protocol designed to facilitate secure and encrypted remote access with a graphical interface, making it the best choice here. 
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                        Question 42 of 9042. QuestionYou need to move a 75-pound box with a rack-mounted UPS in it. Which of the following actions should you take? Correct
 Since the box is over 50 pounds, you should ask a coworker to team lift it with you. Team lifting prevents injury and follows workplace safety guidelines. Incorrect
 Since the box is over 50 pounds, you should ask a coworker to team lift it with you. Team lifting prevents injury and follows workplace safety guidelines. 
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                        Question 43 of 9043. QuestionA company rolls out a cloud-based application that syncs constantly with remote servers. Employees report slow internet speeds after the installation. What is the most likely reason? Correct
 A cloud app that syncs data continuously consumes large amounts of bandwidth, slowing down other traffic on the network. Incorrect
 A cloud app that syncs data continuously consumes large amounts of bandwidth, slowing down other traffic on the network. 
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                        Question 44 of 9044. QuestionYour company is concerned about the possibility of power fluctuations that may occur and cause a large increase in the input power to their server room. What condition is this known as? Correct
 A very short but significant over-voltage event is called a power spike. Incorrect
 A very short but significant over-voltage event is called a power spike. 
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                        Question 45 of 9045. QuestionYour boss from work just sent you an important email, but you are not in the office. You tried to open the email from your smartphone, but it is encrypted and won’t open. What should you do? Correct
 If an encrypted email does not open, verify that your digital certificate is installed on the device, as this is required to decrypt the email. Incorrect
 If an encrypted email does not open, verify that your digital certificate is installed on the device, as this is required to decrypt the email. 
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                        Question 46 of 9046. QuestionYou are a member of a project team contracted to install twenty new wireless access points (WAPs) for a college campus. Your team has already determined the locations for the new WAPs and notated them in the diagrams. The project cannot move forward until the change request is finalized and approved. Which of the following is the MOST important thing from the IT perspective to add before approval? Correct
 A rollback plan is the most important element. It ensures the system can be restored to its prior state if the change causes issues. Incorrect
 A rollback plan is the most important element. It ensures the system can be restored to its prior state if the change causes issues. 
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                        Question 47 of 9047. QuestionWhich of the following policies or plans would describe the access requirements for connecting a user’s laptop to the corporate network? Correct
 A BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policy defines requirements for personal devices connecting to the corporate network. Incorrect
 A BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policy defines requirements for personal devices connecting to the corporate network. 
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                        Question 48 of 9048. QuestionDion Training will be hiring 10 college students as interns to work over the summer. Each year, the interns return, and they will need to reaccess their accounts. What is the BEST policy so that interns can use the accounts during the summer but not log in during the school year? Correct
 Disabling user accounts at the end of each summer allows them to be re-enabled when interns return without losing data. Incorrect
 Disabling user accounts at the end of each summer allows them to be re-enabled when interns return without losing data. 
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                        Question 49 of 9049. QuestionDion Training has configured Windows Defender Firewall on all of its corporate Windows 10 workstations. When connected to a private network, it only allows inbound connections that match an existing rule and outbound connections that do not match any rule. What type of security posture has Dion Training implemented? Correct
 This is explicit allow for inbound (must match a rule) and implicit allow for outbound (allowed unless blocked). Incorrect
 This is explicit allow for inbound (must match a rule) and implicit allow for outbound (allowed unless blocked). 
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                        Question 50 of 9050. QuestionA small doctor’s office has asked you to configure their network to use the highest levels of wireless security and desktop authentication. The office only uses cloud-based SaaS applications to store their patient’s sensitive data. Which TWO of the following protocols or authentication methods should you implement for the BEST security? Correct
 WPA2 provides the strongest wireless encryption, and multifactor authentication ensures strong desktop login security. Incorrect
 WPA2 provides the strongest wireless encryption, and multifactor authentication ensures strong desktop login security. 
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                        Question 51 of 9051. QuestionYou are partitioning a 1 TB hard drive on a new workstation. The hard disk has been partitioned into four different partitions with 100 GB, 150 GB, 250 GB, and 500 GB. How many different file system types could you support on this 1 TB hard drive? Correct
 Partitioning is the act of dividing a physical disk into logically separate storage areas, often referred to as drives. Each partition can be formatted with any file system type. Since there are 4 distinct partitions on this single hard drive, it can support up to 4 different file systems. Incorrect
 Partitioning is the act of dividing a physical disk into logically separate storage areas, often referred to as drives. Each partition can be formatted with any file system type. Since there are 4 distinct partitions on this single hard drive, it can support up to 4 different file systems. 
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                        Question 52 of 9052. QuestionDion Training wants to provide governance for how employees can utilize the corporate network, email, and laptops while working for the company. Within which of the following should this be documented? Correct
 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document stipulating constraints and practices that a user must agree to for access to a corporate network or the internet. For example, an AUP may state that they must not attempt to break any computer network security, hack other users, or visit pornographic websites from their work computer. Incorrect
 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a document stipulating constraints and practices that a user must agree to for access to a corporate network or the internet. For example, an AUP may state that they must not attempt to break any computer network security, hack other users, or visit pornographic websites from their work computer. 
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                        Question 53 of 9053. QuestionMaria is trying to log in to her company’s webmail and is asked to enter her username and password. Which type of authentication method is Maria using? Correct
 Single-factor authentication (SFA) is a process for securing access to a given system that identifies the party requesting access through only one category of credentials (something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, or somewhere you are). The most common example is when a user is prompted to enter their username and password. Incorrect
 Single-factor authentication (SFA) is a process for securing access to a given system that identifies the party requesting access through only one category of credentials (something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, or somewhere you are). The most common example is when a user is prompted to enter their username and password. 
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                        Question 54 of 9054. QuestionThe paparazzi have found copies of pictures of a celebrity’s new baby online. The celebrity states they were never publicly released but were uploaded to their cloud provider’s automated photo backup. Which of the following threats was the celebrity MOST likely a victim of? Correct
 When authorized users access devices through unintended connections or unauthorized users get their hands on absconded devices, they can access data on the device(s) they were never intended to see. This resulted in leaked personal files. Incorrect
 When authorized users access devices through unintended connections or unauthorized users get their hands on absconded devices, they can access data on the device(s) they were never intended to see. This resulted in leaked personal files. 
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                        Question 55 of 9055. QuestionWhich version of Windows 10 does not support BitLocker for full disk encryption? Correct
 Windows 10 has support for BitLocker in every version except the Windows 10 Home edition. BitLocker provides support for full disk encryption using AES with a 128-bit or 256-bit key. Incorrect
 Windows 10 has support for BitLocker in every version except the Windows 10 Home edition. BitLocker provides support for full disk encryption using AES with a 128-bit or 256-bit key. 
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                        Question 56 of 9056. QuestionWhich command-line tool on a Windows system is used to display the resulting set of policy settings that were enforced on a computer for a specified user when they logged on? Correct
 The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer. It shows the effective policies applied when the user logged on. Incorrect
 The gpresult command is used to display the Resultant Set of Policy (RSoP) information for a remote user and computer. It shows the effective policies applied when the user logged on. 
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                        Question 57 of 9057. QuestionDion Training wants to implement a new wireless network using WPA3 in their offices. Which of the following features of WPA3 is used to provide a password-based authentication using the dragonfly handshake instead of the older WPA 4-way handshake? Correct
 Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) is a password-based authentication and key agreement method used in WPA3 that replaced the older 4-way handshake. The SAE handshake is also known as the dragonfly handshake. Incorrect
 Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) is a password-based authentication and key agreement method used in WPA3 that replaced the older 4-way handshake. The SAE handshake is also known as the dragonfly handshake. 
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                        Question 58 of 9058. QuestionA business is preparing to retire multiple printers, laptops, and storage devices. They must follow environmental regulations closely. What action ensures adherence to environmental disposal requirements? Correct
 Contracting with certified electronics recyclers ensures environmentally safe handling, proper recycling of components, and adherence to regulatory guidelines. Other options do not meet environmental compliance standards. Incorrect
 Contracting with certified electronics recyclers ensures environmentally safe handling, proper recycling of components, and adherence to regulatory guidelines. Other options do not meet environmental compliance standards. 
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                        Question 59 of 9059. QuestionYou are renting space in another company’s data center. To protect your server from being physically accessed when you are not in the building, what device should you use? Correct
 A server lock is a physical locking mechanism installed on a server cabinet to prevent unauthorized access to servers. It could be a cipher lock, biometric lock, or keyed lock depending on the security needs. Incorrect
 A server lock is a physical locking mechanism installed on a server cabinet to prevent unauthorized access to servers. It could be a cipher lock, biometric lock, or keyed lock depending on the security needs. 
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                        Question 60 of 9060. QuestionYou are troubleshooting a workstation and need to enter the BIOS. Unfortunately, the user does not remember their BIOS password. What action should you take to reset the BIOS password? Correct
 To reset the BIOS password, unplug the PC, open the cabinet, remove the CMOS battery for 15–30 minutes, and then put it back. This resets all BIOS settings including the password. Incorrect
 To reset the BIOS password, unplug the PC, open the cabinet, remove the CMOS battery for 15–30 minutes, and then put it back. This resets all BIOS settings including the password. 
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                        Question 61 of 9061. QuestionYou just installed a flat panel television in a conference room in your office building. The facilities manager is concerned that a lightning strike could damage it. The company is not worried about the threat of power outages because the conference room is only used a few times per week. Which of the following should be installed to BEST mitigate the facilities manager’s concerns without spending too much money? Correct
 A surge suppressor defends against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. A power strip will not protect against voltage spikes. A UPS or line conditioner could protect against voltage spikes, but they cost much more than a surge suppressor. A line conditioner is a device that adjusts voltages in under-voltage and overvoltage conditions to maintain a 120 V output. Line conditioners raise a sag or under-voltage event back to normal levels, but they cannot protect the line from a complete power failure or power outage. A UPS provides near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions by using a battery backup. Incorrect
 A surge suppressor defends against possible voltage spikes that could damage your electronics, appliances, or equipment. A power strip will not protect against voltage spikes. A UPS or line conditioner could protect against voltage spikes, but they cost much more than a surge suppressor. A line conditioner is a device that adjusts voltages in under-voltage and overvoltage conditions to maintain a 120 V output. Line conditioners raise a sag or under-voltage event back to normal levels, but they cannot protect the line from a complete power failure or power outage. A UPS provides near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions by using a battery backup. 
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                        Question 62 of 9062. QuestionYou have been asked to dispose of 5 old laptops. Which of the following physical data destruction and disposal methods is MOST appropriate to ensure the data is not easily recovered and is disposed of at the lowest cost possible? Correct
 A magnetic disk can be mechanically shredded, incinerated, or degaussed in specialist machinery. A less expensive method is to destroy the disk with a drill or hammer. This is a zero-cost option since most people already own a hammer or drill. The hard drive is physically destroyed, rendering the data on it inaccessible to most users. This method should NOT be used for drives containing the most highly confidential data because it will leave fragments that could be analyzed using specialist tools. Incorrect
 A magnetic disk can be mechanically shredded, incinerated, or degaussed in specialist machinery. A less expensive method is to destroy the disk with a drill or hammer. This is a zero-cost option since most people already own a hammer or drill. The hard drive is physically destroyed, rendering the data on it inaccessible to most users. This method should NOT be used for drives containing the most highly confidential data because it will leave fragments that could be analyzed using specialist tools. 
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                        Question 63 of 9063. QuestionAn ethical hacker has been hired to conduct a physical penetration test of a company. During the first day of the test, the ethical hacker dresses up like a plumber and waits in the building’s main lobby until an employee goes through the main turnstile. As soon as the employee enters his access number and proceeds to go through the turnstile, the ethical hacker follows them through the access gate. What type of attack did the ethical hacker utilize to access the restricted area of the building? Correct
 Based on the description, the ethical hacker conducted a very specialized type of social engineering attack known as tailgating. Tailgating involves someone who lacks the proper authentication following an employee into a restricted area. Incorrect
 Based on the description, the ethical hacker conducted a very specialized type of social engineering attack known as tailgating. Tailgating involves someone who lacks the proper authentication following an employee into a restricted area. 
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                        Question 64 of 9064. QuestionWhy should System Restore be disabled before removing malware from a Windows Home system? Correct
 Malware can store copies of itself in System Restore points, allowing reinfection if the system is reverted to an earlier state. Disabling System Restore prevents malware from being restored after removal. Incorrect
 Malware can store copies of itself in System Restore points, allowing reinfection if the system is reverted to an earlier state. Disabling System Restore prevents malware from being restored after removal. 
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                        Question 65 of 9065. QuestionWhich of the following commands is used on a Linux system to search for lines that match a pattern within a file? Correct
 The grep command searches plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. Grep is supported on Unix, Linux, and macOS. Incorrect
 The grep command searches plain-text data sets for lines that match a regular expression. Grep is supported on Unix, Linux, and macOS. 
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                        Question 66 of 9066. QuestionJason is working in Microsoft Word, but the application appears to have become frozen and unresponsive. Which of the following features in the Task Manager should he use to terminate the unresponsive program? Correct
 The Processes tab in the Task Manager allows you to manage and terminate running apps and services, including unresponsive programs. Incorrect
 The Processes tab in the Task Manager allows you to manage and terminate running apps and services, including unresponsive programs. 
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                        Question 67 of 9067. QuestionA user is trying to transfer a 5GB video file to a USB flash drive formatted with FAT32, but the process fails. What is the BEST way to resolve this issue? Correct
 FAT32 has a maximum file size limit of 4GB. The best solution is to reformat the drive to NTFS, which supports much larger files. Incorrect
 FAT32 has a maximum file size limit of 4GB. The best solution is to reformat the drive to NTFS, which supports much larger files. 
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                        Question 68 of 9068. QuestionWhat is the native file system format used by Windows 10 during installation? Correct
 The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the default file system for Windows 10 installations. It supports large volumes and files with advanced features like permissions and encryption. Incorrect
 The New Technology File System (NTFS) is the default file system for Windows 10 installations. It supports large volumes and files with advanced features like permissions and encryption. 
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                        Question 69 of 9069. QuestionWhat does the command “shutdown /h” do on a Windows workstation? Correct
 The shutdown /h command places the workstation into sleep or hibernation mode. Other options include /r (reboot), /s (shutdown), and /l (log off). Incorrect
 The shutdown /h command places the workstation into sleep or hibernation mode. Other options include /r (reboot), /s (shutdown), and /l (log off). 
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                        Question 70 of 9070. QuestionThe network administrator noticed that the border router has high network capacity loading during non-working hours. This excessive load is causing outages for the company’s web servers. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? Correct
 A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers, making them unavailable to users. Incorrect
 A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers, making them unavailable to users. 
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                        Question 71 of 9071. QuestionYou are working for Dion Training, where you are helping to set up an office for a company in Puerto Rico. The island just suffered a power outage due to a hurricane. The server room at the office has power, but the rest of the office does not. You verify that the diesel generator is running at full electrical load capacity. Which of the following solutions should you recommend to the company to allow you to continue working during a long-term power outage? Correct
 When a hurricane causes a power outage on an island, it can be hours, days, or even months before the power is fully restored. Since the company is located in Puerto Rico, they should have a large capacity diesel generator to power their entire office during a long-term power outage. After Hurricane Maria in 2017, some parts of Puerto Rico went without grid power for nine months. For example, we have multiple redundant and high-capacity power sources at our Dion Training corporate offices to ensure we can remain online and work even without any grid power available. Incorrect
 When a hurricane causes a power outage on an island, it can be hours, days, or even months before the power is fully restored. Since the company is located in Puerto Rico, they should have a large capacity diesel generator to power their entire office during a long-term power outage. After Hurricane Maria in 2017, some parts of Puerto Rico went without grid power for nine months. For example, we have multiple redundant and high-capacity power sources at our Dion Training corporate offices to ensure we can remain online and work even without any grid power available. 
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                        Question 72 of 9072. QuestionA user’s workstation is running slowly and cannot open some larger program files. The user complains that they often get a warning that states memory is running low on their Windows 10 workstation. Which of the following should you configure until more memory can be installed to help alleviate this problem? Correct
 Pagefile in Windows 10 is a hidden system file with the .sys extension stored on your computer’s system drive (usually C:\). The Pagefile allows the computer to perform smoothly by reducing the workload of physical memory. Simply put, every time you open more applications than the RAM on your PC can accommodate, the programs already present in the RAM are automatically transferred to the Pagefile. This process is technically called Paging. Because the Pagefile works as a secondary RAM, it is often referred to as Virtual Memory. Adding more physical memory will allow the computer to run faster, but increasing the pagefile size is an acceptable short-term solution. Incorrect
 Pagefile in Windows 10 is a hidden system file with the .sys extension stored on your computer’s system drive (usually C:\). The Pagefile allows the computer to perform smoothly by reducing the workload of physical memory. Simply put, every time you open more applications than the RAM on your PC can accommodate, the programs already present in the RAM are automatically transferred to the Pagefile. This process is technically called Paging. Because the Pagefile works as a secondary RAM, it is often referred to as Virtual Memory. Adding more physical memory will allow the computer to run faster, but increasing the pagefile size is an acceptable short-term solution. 
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                        Question 73 of 9073. QuestionDion Training uses DHCP to assign private Class C IP addresses to its Windows 10 workstations. Which of the following IP addresses is a Class C address? Correct
 Private IP addresses are any addresses in a specified range that are not allowed to be routed over the Internet. The class A private IP address range contains 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. The class B private IP address range contains 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. The class C private IP address range contains 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. The APIPA/link-local autoconfiguration range is 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. Incorrect
 Private IP addresses are any addresses in a specified range that are not allowed to be routed over the Internet. The class A private IP address range contains 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255. The class B private IP address range contains 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. The class C private IP address range contains 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. The APIPA/link-local autoconfiguration range is 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. 
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                        Question 74 of 9074. QuestionWhich of the following should you use to configure a network adapter’s duplex setting manually in Windows 10? Correct
 The Device Manager is used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. It allows you to adjust properties such as duplex settings. Other options like System, Internet Options, or Windows Defender Firewall are not used for hardware configuration. Incorrect
 The Device Manager is used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. It allows you to adjust properties such as duplex settings. Other options like System, Internet Options, or Windows Defender Firewall are not used for hardware configuration. 
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                        Question 75 of 9075. QuestionWhich of the following is a primary advantage of Apple File System (APFS) over older macOS file systems like HFS+? Correct
 APFS was designed to improve performance and security, particularly on SSDs. It includes built-in encryption, space sharing, and snapshot capabilities, which were not present in HFS+. Unlike NTFS, APFS is not natively compatible with Windows. APFS provides faster rather than slower read/write speeds, especially for SSDs. Incorrect
 APFS was designed to improve performance and security, particularly on SSDs. It includes built-in encryption, space sharing, and snapshot capabilities, which were not present in HFS+. Unlike NTFS, APFS is not natively compatible with Windows. APFS provides faster rather than slower read/write speeds, especially for SSDs. 
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                        Question 76 of 9076. QuestionYour company is expanding its operations in the European Union and is concerned about additional governmental regulations that may apply. Which of the following regulations applies when processing personal data within the European Union? Correct
 The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation created in the European Union that creates provisions and requirements to protect the personal data of EU citizens. Transfers of personal data outside the EU are restricted unless protected by like-for-like regulations. Incorrect
 The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation created in the European Union that creates provisions and requirements to protect the personal data of EU citizens. Transfers of personal data outside the EU are restricted unless protected by like-for-like regulations. 
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                        Question 77 of 9077. QuestionSally was checking her email when she noticed that she has several automated replies from emails she doesn’t remember sending. What type of attack was Sally MOST likely the victim of? Correct
 Sally is MOST likely the victim of hijacked email. Hijacked email occurs when someone takes over your account and sends out messages on your behalf, often triggering bounce-backs. Phishing, spear phishing, and vishing are different attack methods but don’t match the described symptoms. Incorrect
 Sally is MOST likely the victim of hijacked email. Hijacked email occurs when someone takes over your account and sends out messages on your behalf, often triggering bounce-backs. Phishing, spear phishing, and vishing are different attack methods but don’t match the described symptoms. 
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                        Question 78 of 9078. QuestionAn employee at Dion Training is complaining that every time they reboot their Windows 10 workstation a music application is loaded. Which of the following tools would you use to disable the program from starting up each time Windows reboots? Correct
 The Task Manager contains a Startup tab that shows all programs set to launch on boot. You can disable unwanted applications from there. System Information, Event Viewer, and UAC do not control startup programs. Incorrect
 The Task Manager contains a Startup tab that shows all programs set to launch on boot. You can disable unwanted applications from there. System Information, Event Viewer, and UAC do not control startup programs. 
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                        Question 79 of 9079. QuestionYour company has purchased a new building down the street for its executive suites. You have been asked to choose the best encryption for AP4 and AP5 to establish a secure wireless connection between the main building and the executive suites. Which of the following is the BEST encryption? Correct
 WPA2-CCMP is the most secure option. Open provides no encryption. WEP is weak and breakable. WPA and WPA2-TKIP are less secure due to weaknesses in TKIP. Therefore, WPA2-CCMP is the correct choice. Incorrect
 WPA2-CCMP is the most secure option. Open provides no encryption. WEP is weak and breakable. WPA and WPA2-TKIP are less secure due to weaknesses in TKIP. Therefore, WPA2-CCMP is the correct choice. 
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                        Question 80 of 9080. QuestionA home user brought their Windows 10 laptop to the electronics store where you work. They claim their computer has become infected with malware. You begin troubleshooting the issue by first pressing the power button, and the laptop loads properly without any issues. When you open Microsoft Edge, you notice that multiple pop-ups appear almost immediately. Which of the following actions should you take NEXT? Correct
 Malware often targets the browser. Since this is a home user’s laptop, the proper next step is to clear cookies/history, enable a pop-up blocker, and scan for malware. Reporting or reimaging are not necessary as first steps. Incorrect
 Malware often targets the browser. Since this is a home user’s laptop, the proper next step is to clear cookies/history, enable a pop-up blocker, and scan for malware. Reporting or reimaging are not necessary as first steps. 
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                        Question 81 of 9081. QuestionA penetration tester sends an email out to 100,000 random email addresses. In the email the attacker sent, it claims that “Your Bank of America account is locked out. Please click here to reset your password.” Which of the following attack types is being used? Correct
 Phishing is an email-based social engineering attack in which the attacker sends an email from a supposedly reputable source, such as a bank, to try to elicit private information from the victim. Spear phishing attacks focus on a targeted set of people, not just an indiscriminate large group. Whaling targets executives or wealthy individuals. Vishing is voice-based social engineering. Incorrect
 Phishing is an email-based social engineering attack in which the attacker sends an email from a supposedly reputable source, such as a bank, to try to elicit private information from the victim. Spear phishing attacks focus on a targeted set of people, not just an indiscriminate large group. Whaling targets executives or wealthy individuals. Vishing is voice-based social engineering. 
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                        Question 82 of 9082. QuestionYou are working as a mobile device technician for a large corporation’s enterprise service desk. A user complains that every time they attempt to launch the company’s mobile email application, it crashes and displays an error message of Code123. Which of the following should you do FIRST to attempt to solve this problem? Correct
 Clearing the app cache addresses potential issues with temporary files or data that might be causing the app to crash. This quick, non-disruptive action can often resolve minor app problems before trying more complex solutions. Incorrect
 Clearing the app cache addresses potential issues with temporary files or data that might be causing the app to crash. This quick, non-disruptive action can often resolve minor app problems before trying more complex solutions. 
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                        Question 83 of 9083. QuestionSally just purchased a new iPhone and AirPods to listen to her music. After setting up the new iPhone, she can get online and watch YouTube, but her wireless headphones aren’t working. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem? Correct
 Since Sally can connect to the internet, either WiFi or cellular is working, and the phone is not in airplane mode. Since AirPods use Bluetooth, the most likely issue is that Bluetooth is not enabled and must be turned on and paired. Incorrect
 Since Sally can connect to the internet, either WiFi or cellular is working, and the phone is not in airplane mode. Since AirPods use Bluetooth, the most likely issue is that Bluetooth is not enabled and must be turned on and paired. 
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                        Question 84 of 9084. QuestionEmployees at your company frequently forget their passwords, resulting in repeated IT assistance requests. The IT manager decides to implement an alternative screen lock method that’s both user-friendly and secure. Which method best meets these criteria? Correct
 Fingerprint recognition offers a quick, highly secure, and user-friendly screen lock method, reducing forgotten password issues. Swipe locks are insecure, complex passwords are hard to memorize, and voice recognition can be unreliable. Incorrect
 Fingerprint recognition offers a quick, highly secure, and user-friendly screen lock method, reducing forgotten password issues. Swipe locks are insecure, complex passwords are hard to memorize, and voice recognition can be unreliable. 
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                        Question 85 of 9085. QuestionSusan, an executive at Dion Training, will be traveling to Italy for a conference next week. She is worried about remaining connected to the internet while overseas and plans to use the WiFi in her hotel room and the local coffee shop with her laptop. Which of the following should she purchase and configure before leaving for Italy to ensure her communications remain secure regardless of where she is connecting from? Correct
 A Virtual Private Network (VPN) encrypts communications, protecting Susan’s data even on unsecured WiFi networks like hotels and coffee shops. Other options provide connectivity but not strong security. Incorrect
 A Virtual Private Network (VPN) encrypts communications, protecting Susan’s data even on unsecured WiFi networks like hotels and coffee shops. Other options provide connectivity but not strong security. 
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                        Question 86 of 9086. QuestionWhich of the following remote access protocols should you use to connect to a Linux server securely over the internet? Correct
 SSH (Secure Shell) allows secure remote connections to Linux servers. Telnet transmits in plaintext and is insecure. RDP is for Windows desktops, and FTP is for file transfers, not secure remote access. Incorrect
 SSH (Secure Shell) allows secure remote connections to Linux servers. Telnet transmits in plaintext and is insecure. RDP is for Windows desktops, and FTP is for file transfers, not secure remote access. 
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                        Question 87 of 9087. QuestionWhich of the following commands would you use to duplicate the file c:\Users\Jason\Downloads\newfile.docx to c:\Users\Jason\Desktop\newfile.docx from the command line? Correct
 The copy command is used to copy files from one location to another. Diskpart manages partitions, chkdsk checks file systems, and net user manages accounts. Incorrect
 The copy command is used to copy files from one location to another. Diskpart manages partitions, chkdsk checks file systems, and net user manages accounts. 
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                        Question 88 of 9088. QuestionWhich of the following commands is used on a Linux system to copy a file to a new directory and then remove the original file from the previous directory? Correct
 The mv command moves files or directories. It copies them to the new location and removes the original. cp only copies, rm deletes, and ls lists directory contents. Incorrect
 The mv command moves files or directories. It copies them to the new location and removes the original. cp only copies, rm deletes, and ls lists directory contents. 
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                        Question 89 of 9089. QuestionA company is using an operating system that has recently reached its End-of-Life (EOL). Which of the following is the MOST significant risk of continuing to use this OS? Correct
 When an OS reaches EOL, it no longer receives security patches, leaving it vulnerable to new threats. While performance or compatibility may degrade, security vulnerabilities are the biggest risk. Incorrect
 When an OS reaches EOL, it no longer receives security patches, leaving it vulnerable to new threats. While performance or compatibility may degrade, security vulnerabilities are the biggest risk. 
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                        Question 90 of 9090. QuestionWhich of the following threats can policies, procedures, and end-user training help to effectively mitigate? Correct
 Social engineering attempts, such as phishing, pretexting, and tailgating, can be mitigated with strong policies, procedures, and user training. Zero-day, DDoS, and on-path attacks require technical defenses. Incorrect
 Social engineering attempts, such as phishing, pretexting, and tailgating, can be mitigated with strong policies, procedures, and user training. Zero-day, DDoS, and on-path attacks require technical defenses. 
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                        Question 1 of 801. QuestionA system administrator needs a secure method of storing encryption keys. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement? Correct
 HSM stands for Hardware Security Module and is a physical device that provides secure storage and management of encryption keys. It is designed to protect sensitive information and is the best choice for securely storing encryption keys. Incorrect
 HSM stands for Hardware Security Module and is a physical device that provides secure storage and management of encryption keys. It is designed to protect sensitive information and is the best choice for securely storing encryption keys. 
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                        Question 2 of 802. QuestionWhich mobile device connection is commonly used for making payments at a store checkout? Correct
 NFC (Near Field Communication) allows for secure communication between devices in close proximity, making it ideal for contactless payments. Incorrect
 NFC (Near Field Communication) allows for secure communication between devices in close proximity, making it ideal for contactless payments. 
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                        Question 3 of 803. QuestionA user’s print jobs to a new multifunction printer produce pages of garbled text, but jobs from other users are printing normally. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue? Correct
 The print driver configured for PCL could cause garbled text if the printer does not support PCL, affecting only that user. Incorrect
 The print driver configured for PCL could cause garbled text if the printer does not support PCL, affecting only that user. 
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                        Question 4 of 804. QuestionA user has powered on their computer and received the message “Operating system not found.” A check of the system shows that the SATA drive cables are properly connected. Which of the following would be the NEXT best troubleshooting step? Correct
 Check for removable drives as they may be identified as the boot drive mistakenly. Incorrect
 Check for removable drives as they may be identified as the boot drive mistakenly. 
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                        Question 5 of 805. QuestionA technician has connected a laptop to an LCD. The LCD is displaying the correct information, but all of the content appears to be fuzzy and difficult to read. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue? Correct
 The laptop resolution is incorrect; adjusting to the LCD’s native resolution resolves the fuzziness. Incorrect
 The laptop resolution is incorrect; adjusting to the LCD’s native resolution resolves the fuzziness. 
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                        Question 6 of 806. QuestionA server administrator is upgrading the memory in a web server from 16 GB of non-ECC RAM to 64 GB of ECC RAM. After starting the system with the new memory, the computer beeps and nothing is displayed on the screen. Changing the number and location of new RAM modules results in the same beeping sounds and blank screen. After replacing the original 16 GB modules, the system starts normally. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue? Correct
 The new memory is not compatible with the motherboard, causing beeping and blank screen on startup. Incorrect
 The new memory is not compatible with the motherboard, causing beeping and blank screen on startup. 
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                        Question 7 of 807. QuestionA manager in the marketing department is printing many copies of a twenty page document. The manager would like to print all twenty pages of the document before the next copy begins printing. What setting should the manager configure in the output settings? Correct
 The collate setting causes the printer to finish printing all pages of one copy before starting the next. Incorrect
 The collate setting causes the printer to finish printing all pages of one copy before starting the next. 
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                        Question 8 of 808. QuestionA user is having an issue with a smartphone battery bulging and physically pushing the screen away from the phone. The rest of the phone appears to be operating normally. Which of the following should be the BEST next troubleshooting step? Correct
 Power off the phone and contact support to address the bulging battery issue, as it poses a safety hazard. Incorrect
 Power off the phone and contact support to address the bulging battery issue, as it poses a safety hazard. 
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                        Question 9 of 809. QuestionThe stylus on a Windows tablet will no longer interact with the user interface. Which of these would be the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 The digitizer is likely malfunctioning; it detects and responds to stylus input. Incorrect
 The digitizer is likely malfunctioning; it detects and responds to stylus input. 
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                        Question 10 of 8010. QuestionAn engineer has manually configured IP addresses for a small office that uses a cable modem for Internet connectivity. Devices can’t browse websites. Given the configuration shown, what should be the NEXT troubleshooting step? Correct
 Checking the DNS configuration is essential to resolve website browsing issues. Incorrect
 Checking the DNS configuration is essential to resolve website browsing issues. 
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                        Question 11 of 8011. QuestionIn which of the following would a Lightning cable MOST likely be used? Correct
 A Lightning cable is used to charge a mobile device. This type of cable is commonly used to connect a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad, to a power source for charging. Incorrect
 A Lightning cable is used to charge a mobile device. This type of cable is commonly used to connect a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad, to a power source for charging. 
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                        Question 12 of 8012. QuestionA company has designed a platform to scale up when the application use increases during the day, and scale back down at night. Which of the following BEST describes this characteristic of cloud computing? Correct
 Rapid elasticity refers to the ability for cloud resources to quickly and efficiently scale up or down based on demand, allowing for flexibility and cost-effectiveness. Incorrect
 Rapid elasticity refers to the ability for cloud resources to quickly and efficiently scale up or down based on demand, allowing for flexibility and cost-effectiveness. 
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                        Question 13 of 8013. QuestionA company is deploying cloud-hosted virtual desktops for training room classes. The VMs have already been configured in the cloud. Which of the following is required to access these VMs using thin clients in the training room? Correct
 Mouse, keyboard, and monitor are required because thin clients rely on these input/output devices to interact with cloud-hosted virtual desktops. Incorrect
 Mouse, keyboard, and monitor are required because thin clients rely on these input/output devices to interact with cloud-hosted virtual desktops. 
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                        Question 14 of 8014. QuestionWhich wireless standard can operate in the 5 GHz band and provides approximately 10 Gbit/sec of throughput? Correct
 802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, operates in the 5 GHz band and provides approximately 10 Gbit/sec throughput under ideal conditions. Incorrect
 802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, operates in the 5 GHz band and provides approximately 10 Gbit/sec throughput under ideal conditions. 
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                        Question 15 of 8015. QuestionA server administrator has been asked to troubleshoot a system that has been slowing down over time. While examining the computer, the administrator can hear a series of clicks from the inside of the case. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address this issue? Correct
 Performing a full backup of the server is the first priority to prevent data loss before further troubleshooting. Incorrect
 Performing a full backup of the server is the first priority to prevent data loss before further troubleshooting. 
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                        Question 16 of 8016. QuestionA user’s tablet has stopped responding to any type of finger input on the screen. The clock and other tablet functions appear to be working. Which of the following would be the BEST way to correct this issue? Correct
 Restarting the tablet often resolves software glitches preventing touch input. Incorrect
 Restarting the tablet often resolves software glitches preventing touch input. 
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                        Question 17 of 8017. QuestionAn engineering firm is upgrading their storage array to include additional drive space for documents and designs. The primary goal is to provide high performance and uptime, even if two drives were to fail. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this firm? Correct
 RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping to offer high performance and tolerance to two drive failures. Incorrect
 RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping to offer high performance and tolerance to two drive failures. 
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                        Question 18 of 8018. QuestionA user in a remote office is connecting a device using an F-connector. Which of the following would be MOST likely associated with this connection? Correct
 A cable modem is most likely connected using an F-connector, typically for coaxial cable-based internet or TV services. Incorrect
 A cable modem is most likely connected using an F-connector, typically for coaxial cable-based internet or TV services. 
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                        Question 19 of 8019. QuestionA network administrator has received a ticket complaining of port flapping on an Ethernet switch. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this issue? Correct
 A faulty crimp on an Ethernet connector causes intermittent connectivity, leading to port flapping on the switch. Incorrect
 A faulty crimp on an Ethernet connector causes intermittent connectivity, leading to port flapping on the switch. 
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                        Question 20 of 8020. QuestionA user is pairing a Bluetooth headset to their smartphone. What type of security is used during the pairing process to authorize this connection? Correct
 During Bluetooth pairing, a PIN is used to authorize the connection between the headset and smartphone. Incorrect
 During Bluetooth pairing, a PIN is used to authorize the connection between the headset and smartphone. 
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                        Question 21 of 8021. QuestionA remote user is visiting their corporate office. They have connected their laptop to the wireless network, but the corporate Internet access is performing much slower than their remote site network. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this issue? Correct
 The most likely reason for the slow Internet connection is interference with the wireless signal. This can be caused by physical obstructions, other electronic devices, or neighboring wireless networks operating on the same channel. Incorrect
 The most likely reason for the slow Internet connection is interference with the wireless signal. This can be caused by physical obstructions, other electronic devices, or neighboring wireless networks operating on the same channel. 
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                        Question 22 of 8022. QuestionA Windows user would like to temporarily store information from RAM onto their SSD. Which of the following features should be configured? Correct
 Virtual Memory allows the operating system to use a portion of the SSD as temporary storage for data normally held in RAM, optimizing system performance. Incorrect
 Virtual Memory allows the operating system to use a portion of the SSD as temporary storage for data normally held in RAM, optimizing system performance. 
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                        Question 23 of 8023. QuestionA client’s laptop appears to boot normally, but nothing ever appears on the LCD. After closer inspection, you notice the output is visible but it’s too faint to clearly see anything. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 The inverter powers the backlight of the LCD. A malfunctioning inverter causes the display to appear faint or dim. Incorrect
 The inverter powers the backlight of the LCD. A malfunctioning inverter causes the display to appear faint or dim. 
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                        Question 24 of 8024. QuestionThe printer in the accounting department has stopped all printing processes. The print queue shows seven jobs in the queue waiting to be printed. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step? Correct
 Restarting the printer’s spooler often resolves issues with stuck print jobs by clearing the queue and resuming normal printing. Incorrect
 Restarting the printer’s spooler often resolves issues with stuck print jobs by clearing the queue and resuming normal printing. 
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                        Question 25 of 8025. QuestionA network administrator is deploying a firewall to the cloud using an API to configure the device. Which of the following would BEST describe this deployment type? Correct
 SDN (Software-Defined Networking) involves centralized management of network devices through APIs, matching the described deployment. Incorrect
 SDN (Software-Defined Networking) involves centralized management of network devices through APIs, matching the described deployment. 
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                        Question 26 of 8026. QuestionA system administrator is building a server for a data center in another country. The server will manage a print queue and provide a local storage partition for temporary file transfers. Which of the following power supply specifications will be the MOST important for this server? Correct
 Voltage input options are crucial to ensure the power supply is compatible with the local power standards in the country where the server will be used. Incorrect
 Voltage input options are crucial to ensure the power supply is compatible with the local power standards in the country where the server will be used. 
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                        Question 27 of 8027. QuestionA desktop administrator has been asked to troubleshoot a laptop computer that beeps during the power on process while the laptop screen remains dark. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step? Correct
 Establishing a theory about the problem helps guide troubleshooting by forming a hypothesis for the cause of the beeping and dark screen. Incorrect
 Establishing a theory about the problem helps guide troubleshooting by forming a hypothesis for the cause of the beeping and dark screen. 
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                        Question 28 of 8028. QuestionA system administrator made some BIOS changes to a desktop computer running Windows 10, and now this message appears when starting the computer: “This drive can only boot in UEFI mode.” Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step? Correct
 Enabling Secure Boot in the BIOS helps ensure the system boots in UEFI mode as required by the drive. Incorrect
 Enabling Secure Boot in the BIOS helps ensure the system boots in UEFI mode as required by the drive. 
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                        Question 29 of 8029. QuestionA user is reporting that a shared laser printer in the marketing department is not printing from one particular application. The front panel of the printer shows that the printer is online and ready to receive print jobs. Other users in the department are able to successfully print to the printer. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step? Correct
 Verifying the network printer name in the application ensures the correct printer is selected, resolving application-specific printing issues. Incorrect
 Verifying the network printer name in the application ensures the correct printer is selected, resolving application-specific printing issues. 
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                        Question 30 of 8030. QuestionA system administrator has created a cloud configuration which automatically monitors utilization for usage-based billing. Which of the following describes this cloud computing characteristic? Correct
 Metered cloud services monitor and track resource usage to enable billing based on consumption. Incorrect
 Metered cloud services monitor and track resource usage to enable billing based on consumption. 
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                        Question 31 of 8031. QuestionWhich of the following would be the BEST choice for capturing an image from a printed page and saving it on a computer? Correct
 A flatbed scanner is designed specifically for capturing images from printed pages and saving them on a computer. It provides high-quality image capture and allows for easy saving and editing of the captured image. Incorrect
 A flatbed scanner is designed specifically for capturing images from printed pages and saving them on a computer. It provides high-quality image capture and allows for easy saving and editing of the captured image. 
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                        Question 32 of 8032. QuestionA server administrator has been asked to configure the storage requirements for a new database server. The database owner requires the fastest performance and redundancy if a single drive fails. The storage array should support at least 8 TB of available space. Which of the following options would be the BEST choice? Correct
 RAID 5 with 10,000 RPM, 5 TB drives provides a good balance of performance and redundancy with support for single drive failure and meets the storage capacity requirement. Incorrect
 RAID 5 with 10,000 RPM, 5 TB drives provides a good balance of performance and redundancy with support for single drive failure and meets the storage capacity requirement. 
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                        Question 33 of 8033. QuestionA user is complaining about slow network performance from their workstation. A network technician checks the data closet and finds the wires are not properly seated in the 110 block. Which of the following should the technician use to correct this issue? Correct
 A punch-down tool is used to properly seat and connect wires into a 110 block, resolving connectivity issues. Incorrect
 A punch-down tool is used to properly seat and connect wires into a 110 block, resolving connectivity issues. 
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                        Question 34 of 8034. QuestionA network administrator would like to enable DHCP on a laptop, but they would like the same IP address to be assigned to the laptop each time it starts. Which of the following would provide this functionality? Correct
 Creating an IP reservation on the DHCP server ensures the laptop receives the same IP address every time based on its MAC address. Incorrect
 Creating an IP reservation on the DHCP server ensures the laptop receives the same IP address every time based on its MAC address. 
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                        Question 35 of 8035. QuestionA system administrator has tripped over an Ethernet cable and the cable’s RJ45 connector has broken. Which of the following should be used to resolve this issue? Correct
 A crimper is the tool used to attach RJ45 connectors to Ethernet cables, making it the correct tool to repair the broken connector. Incorrect
 A crimper is the tool used to attach RJ45 connectors to Ethernet cables, making it the correct tool to repair the broken connector. 
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                        Question 36 of 8036. QuestionA system administrator has connected an external USB drive to a computer to transfer some documents. When booting the computer, the system tries to boot from the external drive and gives an error message. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the USB drive from booting? Correct
 Modifying the BIOS to prioritize booting from the internal hard drive prevents the system from attempting to boot from the external USB drive. Incorrect
 Modifying the BIOS to prioritize booting from the internal hard drive prevents the system from attempting to boot from the external USB drive. 
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                        Question 37 of 8037. QuestionWhat type of device connects multiple computers to the network, but becomes less efficient as network traffic increases? Correct
 A hub connects multiple computers by broadcasting traffic to all ports, which can cause network inefficiency as traffic increases. Incorrect
 A hub connects multiple computers by broadcasting traffic to all ports, which can cause network inefficiency as traffic increases. 
- 
                        Question 38 of 8038. QuestionWhen pressing the power button on a desktop computer, the power indicator lights up but the computer does not display any message on the screen. The voltage at the wall outlet has been checked and it appears to be normal. The motherboard power connector voltage was checked, and the 12 volt pin was showing 6 volts. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 The power supply is faulty as evidenced by the low voltage reading on the 12 volt pin, causing the system to fail POST and display. Incorrect
 The power supply is faulty as evidenced by the low voltage reading on the 12 volt pin, causing the system to fail POST and display. 
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                        Question 39 of 8039. QuestionA network connection in a conference room was installed years ago, and there’s no documentation for the cable run. Connecting a device to the cable results in a successful Ethernet connection, so the other end of the cable should terminate somewhere in the wiring closet. Which of these tools would be the best choice to find the other end of the network connection? Correct
 A tone generator can be connected to one end of the cable and, using a probe, helps trace and locate the other end in the wiring closet. Incorrect
 A tone generator can be connected to one end of the cable and, using a probe, helps trace and locate the other end in the wiring closet. 
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                        Question 40 of 8040. QuestionWhich of the following would be MOST associated with an IoT device? Correct
 ARM processors are commonly used in IoT devices due to their low power consumption and efficiency. Incorrect
 ARM processors are commonly used in IoT devices due to their low power consumption and efficiency. 
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                        Question 41 of 8041. QuestionWhich of these technologies do not require a backlight to provide a viewable display? Correct
 OLED technology does not require a backlight because each pixel emits its own light, allowing for deeper blacks and vibrant colors. Incorrect
 OLED technology does not require a backlight because each pixel emits its own light, allowing for deeper blacks and vibrant colors. 
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                        Question 42 of 8042. QuestionA system administrator needs to upgrade a laptop from a hard drive to an SSD. Which of the following would provide the most efficient method of upgrading this system? Correct
 Creating an image of the hard drive and restoring it to the SSD ensures a seamless transfer including OS, applications, and data. Incorrect
 Creating an image of the hard drive and restoring it to the SSD ensures a seamless transfer including OS, applications, and data. 
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                        Question 43 of 8043. QuestionWhich of the following can be used to forward traffic based on a destination MAC address? Correct
 An unmanaged switch forwards traffic based on MAC addresses to the appropriate port within a network. Incorrect
 An unmanaged switch forwards traffic based on MAC addresses to the appropriate port within a network. 
- 
                        Question 44 of 8044. QuestionA user in the accounting department has turned on their computer and received the message “Date and Time not set.” Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this message? Correct
 The motherboard battery has discharged, causing the loss of date and time settings upon powering on the computer. Incorrect
 The motherboard battery has discharged, causing the loss of date and time settings upon powering on the computer. 
- 
                        Question 45 of 8045. QuestionA user in the marketing department would like to use a stylus to provide input through an external digitizer. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement? Correct
 A drawing pad (graphics tablet) is designed for use with a stylus and provides accurate input for creative tasks. Incorrect
 A drawing pad (graphics tablet) is designed for use with a stylus and provides accurate input for creative tasks. 
- 
                        Question 46 of 8046. QuestionWhich of these connection types use coax to provide Internet data, voice, and video over the same wire? Correct
 Cable broadband uses coaxial cable to deliver Internet data, voice, and video simultaneously. Incorrect
 Cable broadband uses coaxial cable to deliver Internet data, voice, and video simultaneously. 
- 
                        Question 47 of 8047. QuestionA technician is connecting a laptop to an LCD projector in a conference room. The display on the laptop works properly, but the projector image is constantly flickering and pixelating. The technician has modified the resolution and refresh rates, but the projector image continues to flicker. Which of the following would be the BEST next troubleshooting step? Correct
 Replacing the video cable is the best next step to rule out faulty or damaged cables causing flickering and pixelation. Incorrect
 Replacing the video cable is the best next step to rule out faulty or damaged cables causing flickering and pixelation. 
- 
                        Question 48 of 8048. QuestionA system administrator has received a report of customers receiving email messages from the company, but upon further analysis the administrator finds the messages were not actually sent by the corporation. Which of the following should be implemented to prevent these spoofed email messages? Correct
 Configuring an SPF record in the DNS specifies authorized mail servers and helps prevent email spoofing using the company’s domain. Incorrect
 Configuring an SPF record in the DNS specifies authorized mail servers and helps prevent email spoofing using the company’s domain. 
- 
                        Question 49 of 8049. QuestionA user in the accounting department needs to print a form on the laser printer on both sides of the page. Which of the following options should be configured in the accounting software? Correct
 Duplex printing allows printing on both sides of the page, enabling this requirement. Incorrect
 Duplex printing allows printing on both sides of the page, enabling this requirement. 
- 
                        Question 50 of 8050. QuestionA group of wireless laptops in a conference room are reporting intermittent connectivity issues. The wired computers in the room are not experiencing any network problems. A check of the laptops shows that the IP addresses and configurations appear to be correct. Which of the following would be the best NEXT troubleshooting step? Correct
 Verifying the wireless signal strength helps determine if weak or fluctuating signals are causing intermittent connectivity. Incorrect
 Verifying the wireless signal strength helps determine if weak or fluctuating signals are causing intermittent connectivity. 
- 
                        Question 51 of 8051. QuestionA firewall is configured to block email transfers from a remote server. Which of the following ports is the firewall blocking? Correct
 Port 25 is the standard port for SMTP, used for sending emails. Blocking this port prevents email transfers from the remote server. Incorrect
 Port 25 is the standard port for SMTP, used for sending emails. Blocking this port prevents email transfers from the remote server. 
- 
                        Question 52 of 8052. QuestionA company is developing an internal application for smartphones and tablets. Which of the following would improve the security of the application’s logon process? Correct
 Two-factor authentication requires two forms of identification, significantly improving logon security for the application. Incorrect
 Two-factor authentication requires two forms of identification, significantly improving logon security for the application. 
- 
                        Question 53 of 8053. QuestionWhich of the following would be MOST likely found on an optical disc? Correct
 Document archives are commonly stored on optical discs for long-term storage. Incorrect
 Document archives are commonly stored on optical discs for long-term storage. 
- 
                        Question 54 of 8054. QuestionA manager needs to have access to the same files, contacts, and email messages across their MacBook, iPad, and iPhone devices. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide this synchronization? Correct
 Authenticating to iCloud on all Apple devices enables seamless synchronization of files, contacts, and email messages across them. Incorrect
 Authenticating to iCloud on all Apple devices enables seamless synchronization of files, contacts, and email messages across them. 
- 
                        Question 55 of 8055. QuestionA desktop computer has just abruptly shut off, and pressing the power button doesn’t restart the system. There are no fans spinning, no lights are on, and no messages appear on the display. Which of these would be the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 A faulty power supply can cause the system to abruptly shut off and prevent powering on, indicated by no lights or fan activity. Incorrect
 A faulty power supply can cause the system to abruptly shut off and prevent powering on, indicated by no lights or fan activity. 
- 
                        Question 56 of 8056. QuestionA new employee has been assigned a corporate smartphone, but the camera and the installation of third-party apps has been disabled. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for these issues? Correct
 A Mobile Device Management (MDM) system has disabled these features for security or compliance reasons. Incorrect
 A Mobile Device Management (MDM) system has disabled these features for security or compliance reasons. 
- 
                        Question 57 of 8057. QuestionA technician is installing a DSL modem in a data center. Which of the following connectors would be used to connect the DSL modem to the Internet provider line? Correct
 The RJ11 connector is used to connect DSL modems to telephone lines provided by the Internet service provider. Incorrect
 The RJ11 connector is used to connect DSL modems to telephone lines provided by the Internet service provider. 
- 
                        Question 58 of 8058. QuestionA company needs to purchase a new printer for an open work area. The primary requirement of this printer is to be as quiet as possible. Which of these printer types would be the best fit for this requirement? Correct
 Thermal printers are the quietest among the options because they use heat to print without impact mechanisms. Incorrect
 Thermal printers are the quietest among the options because they use heat to print without impact mechanisms. 
- 
                        Question 59 of 8059. QuestionA user in the manufacturing department reports that every page printed from the central networked laser printer has a single black line extending from the top of the page to the bottom. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 A damaged photosensitive drum causes a consistent black line on every printed page. Incorrect
 A damaged photosensitive drum causes a consistent black line on every printed page. 
- 
                        Question 60 of 8060. QuestionA user’s smartphone shows a black screen and does not respond to any screen taps or button presses. A check of the SIM card shows a red label but no physical damage. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for these issues? Correct
 Liquid damage is most likely, as it can cause the phone to become unresponsive and the SIM card’s red label indicates liquid exposure. Incorrect
 Liquid damage is most likely, as it can cause the phone to become unresponsive and the SIM card’s red label indicates liquid exposure. 
- 
                        Question 61 of 8061. QuestionA user would like to access email from their Windows 10 laptop using a smartphone’s Internet connection. Which of these technologies needs to be enabled on the laptop? Correct
 802.11 refers to Wi-Fi technology, allowing the laptop to connect wirelessly to the smartphone’s hotspot and access the Internet. Incorrect
 802.11 refers to Wi-Fi technology, allowing the laptop to connect wirelessly to the smartphone’s hotspot and access the Internet. 
- 
                        Question 62 of 8062. QuestionWhich of the following BEST describes a Bluetooth network? Correct
 A Bluetooth network is a Personal Area Network (PAN), enabling devices to communicate over short distances. Incorrect
 A Bluetooth network is a Personal Area Network (PAN), enabling devices to communicate over short distances. 
- 
                        Question 63 of 8063. QuestionWhen a user starts their computer, the screen remains blank and the computer beeps twice. Which of these would be the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 Two beeps and a blank screen typically indicate faulty memory (RAM). Incorrect
 Two beeps and a blank screen typically indicate faulty memory (RAM). 
- 
                        Question 64 of 8064. QuestionA graphics designer is experiencing increasing delays when accessing files on her hard drive. The user maintains a daily backup of all data on the drive. Which of these would be the BEST next troubleshooting step for this issue? Correct
 Performing a hard drive diagnostic will verify whether the drive is failing and causing delays, enabling proactive replacement. Incorrect
 Performing a hard drive diagnostic will verify whether the drive is failing and causing delays, enabling proactive replacement. 
- 
                        Question 65 of 8065. QuestionSam, a user in the accounting department, is migrating from Android to iOS. She would like all of her emails, contact lists, and calendar events to be moved to her new phone. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this task? Correct
 Using corporate Microsoft 365 allows easy synchronization of emails, contacts, and calendars across different platforms. Incorrect
 Using corporate Microsoft 365 allows easy synchronization of emails, contacts, and calendars across different platforms. 
- 
                        Question 66 of 8066. QuestionA newly installed MFD provides an option to “scan to SMB.” Which of the following would BEST describe this feature? Correct
 “Scan to SMB” means scanned files are stored on a Microsoft network share, such as a file server folder. Incorrect
 “Scan to SMB” means scanned files are stored on a Microsoft network share, such as a file server folder. 
- 
                        Question 67 of 8067. QuestionWhen printing a document on a laser printer, a user finds that all of the text on the page smears when touched. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 A damaged fuser causes toner not to properly bond to paper, resulting in smearing when touched. Incorrect
 A damaged fuser causes toner not to properly bond to paper, resulting in smearing when touched. 
- 
                        Question 68 of 8068. QuestionAn application developer needs to test an application across all of the operating systems used by the company. Each operating system will be tested individually in a lab environment. The company would like to minimize any additional hardware purchases for this project. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test this application? Correct
 Purchasing a high-capacity system and creating multiple virtual machines for each operating system allows testing without additional hardware. Incorrect
 Purchasing a high-capacity system and creating multiple virtual machines for each operating system allows testing without additional hardware. 
- 
                        Question 69 of 8069. QuestionA site manager has noticed her smartphone has a short battery life when used at work, and the battery life is normal when working from home. The work location has limited mobile service reception, but most office services are provided over the local 802.11 Wi-Fi network. The site manager does not enable Bluetooth on her smartphone. Which of the following would be the BEST way to extend the battery life of her mobile device? Correct
 Disabling the cellular radio at work conserves power by preventing the device from constantly searching for a weak cellular signal. Incorrect
 Disabling the cellular radio at work conserves power by preventing the device from constantly searching for a weak cellular signal. 
- 
                        Question 70 of 8070. QuestionA system administrator has configured a VM for dual processors, 16 GB of RAM, and 120 GB of disk space. Which of the following is required to start this VM? Correct
 A hypervisor is required to create and run virtual machines by allocating hardware resources to them. Incorrect
 A hypervisor is required to create and run virtual machines by allocating hardware resources to them. 
- 
                        Question 71 of 8071. QuestionWhile configuring a new workstation in the lab, one of the engineers recommends using 255.255.255.0. What part of the configuration is this associated with? Correct
 The subnet mask divides an IP address into network and host portions, defining the network size and host availability. Incorrect
 The subnet mask divides an IP address into network and host portions, defining the network size and host availability. 
- 
                        Question 72 of 8072. QuestionA system administrator is using a maintenance kit on a network-connected laser printer. Which of the following should be the LAST step when performing this maintenance? Correct
 Resetting the page counter is the last step, indicating completion of maintenance tasks and ready printer operation. Incorrect
 Resetting the page counter is the last step, indicating completion of maintenance tasks and ready printer operation. 
- 
                        Question 73 of 8073. QuestionA user has just connected to a new wireless network but cannot view any Internet web sites. Their network configuration shows the IP address as 169.254.228.109, the subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, and they have not been assigned a default gateway. Which of these is the MOST likely cause of this issue? Correct
 The DHCP server being down causes the device to assign an APIPA address and no default gateway, preventing Internet access. Incorrect
 The DHCP server being down causes the device to assign an APIPA address and no default gateway, preventing Internet access. 
- 
                        Question 74 of 8074. QuestionA company hosts a cloud-based application which includes redundant servers located in different data centers around the world. Which of the following cloud computing characteristics would BEST describe this application design? Correct
 High availability ensures the application remains operational and accessible due to redundant servers across multiple data centers worldwide. Incorrect
 High availability ensures the application remains operational and accessible due to redundant servers across multiple data centers worldwide. 
- 
                        Question 75 of 8075. QuestionA manager’s computer connects to the Internet in some areas but loses Internet access when docked at their desk. Other features still work. What should be the FIRST troubleshooting step? Correct
 Checking the docking station network cable is the first step to identify potential connectivity issues causing the loss of Internet access. Incorrect
 Checking the docking station network cable is the first step to identify potential connectivity issues causing the loss of Internet access. 
- 
                        Question 76 of 8076. QuestionA server administrator has received an alert showing one drive in a RAID 1 array has failed. Which of the following would be the best way to resolve this alert? Correct
 Replacing the bad drive and resyncing the RAID 1 array restores redundancy and protects data. Incorrect
 Replacing the bad drive and resyncing the RAID 1 array restores redundancy and protects data. 
- 
                        Question 77 of 8077. QuestionWhat is the minimum category of unshielded copper cable for a 10 gigabit per second Ethernet link with a fifteen meter distance? Correct
 Category 6 cable is rated for up to 10 Gbps over distances up to 55 meters, making it the minimum required for 15 meters. Incorrect
 Category 6 cable is rated for up to 10 Gbps over distances up to 55 meters, making it the minimum required for 15 meters. 
- 
                        Question 78 of 8078. QuestionA network administrator is connecting four company locations in different countries. Which of the following would BEST describe this configuration? Correct
 A WAN connects multiple networks across wide geographic areas, such as different countries. Incorrect
 A WAN connects multiple networks across wide geographic areas, such as different countries. 
- 
                        Question 79 of 8079. QuestionA workstation has been assigned an APIPA address. Which of the following would be the MOST likely reason for this assignment? Correct
 The DHCP server is down, so the workstation assigns itself an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) for local connectivity. Incorrect
 The DHCP server is down, so the workstation assigns itself an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA) for local connectivity. 
- 
                        Question 80 of 8080. QuestionWhat kind of device is commonly used to filter traffic based on a predefined set of rules? Correct
 A firewall filters and controls network traffic based on security rules. Incorrect
 A firewall filters and controls network traffic based on security rules. 
Understanding the CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Free CompTIA A+ practice tests offer more than just question-and-answer sessions—they provide a risk-free environment to assess your readiness without financial commitment. By taking multiple practice exams, you familiarize yourself with the diverse question types including multiple-choice, performance-based, and drag-and-drop scenarios that appear on the actual certification exam. These free resources help you recognize knowledge gaps early in your study journey, allowing you to focus your efforts on domains where you need the most improvement, whether that’s hardware troubleshooting, operating systems, security fundamentals, or networking concepts.
Numerous reputable platforms offer free CompTIA A+ practice questions that align with current exam objectives. Official CompTIA resources occasionally provide sample questions that reflect the actual exam structure and difficulty level. Educational websites, IT certification forums, and technology training platforms frequently publish complimentary CompTIA A+ Practice Test featuring detailed explanations for each answer. YouTube channels dedicated to IT certification often include quiz-style content, while study groups on social media platforms share community-created practice questions. When selecting free CompTIA A+ Practice Test, prioritize sources that update their content regularly to match the latest exam objectives and provide comprehensive explanations rather than just correct answers.
Exam Structure and Format
The CompTIA A+ certification requires passing two separate exams:
Core 1 (220-1101): Focuses on mobile devices, networking technology, hardware, virtualization, and cloud computing
- 90 questions (multiple-choice and performance-based)
- 90 minutes to complete
- Passing score: 675 (on a scale of 100-900)
Core 2 (220-1102): Covers operating systems, security, software troubleshooting, and operational procedures
- 90 questions (multiple-choice and performance-based)
- 90 minutes to complete
- Passing score: 700 (on a scale of 100-900)
Both exams include multiple-choice questions and performance-based questions (PBQs) that simulate real-world scenarios. Understanding this format is crucial for effective CompTIA A+ Practice Test preparation.
Benefits of Taking FREE CompTIA A+ Practice Tests
Simply taking free practice tests isn’t enough—strategic utilization makes the difference between passing and failing. Treat each practice exam as if it were the real thing by timing yourself, eliminating distractions, and avoiding the temptation to look up answers mid-test. After completing each practice exam, thoroughly review both correct and incorrect answers to understand the underlying concepts rather than memorizing specific questions. Create a study log documenting your scores across different domains to track improvement over time and identify persistent weak areas. Supplement free CompTIA A+ Practice Test with hands-on lab experience, official study guides, and video tutorials to reinforce theoretical knowledge with practical application, ensuring you’re truly prepared for the performance-based questions that comprise a significant portion of the CompTIA A+ certification.
1. Identify Knowledge Gaps Early
CompTIA A+ Practice Tests reveal which exam objectives you’ve mastered and which require additional study. Rather than discovering weaknesses on exam day, you can target specific domains for improvement.
2. Build Time Management Skills
With only 90 minutes for 90 questions, time management is critical. CompTIA A+ Practice Tests help you develop pacing strategies, ensuring you can complete all questions without rushing.
3. Reduce Test Anxiety
Familiarity breeds confidence. Regular practice testing makes the exam format feel routine rather than intimidating, significantly reducing test-day stress.
4. Improve Information Retention
The “testing effect” is a proven cognitive phenomenon: retrieving information during practice strengthens memory more effectively than passive review. Free CompTIA A+ Practice Tests transform temporary knowledge into long-term retention.
5. Learn Question Patterns and Formats
CompTIA uses specific question styles and distractors. CompTIA A+ Practice Tests teach you to recognize these patterns, identify keyword clues, and eliminate wrong answers efficiently.
How to Use CompTIA A+ Practice Tests Effectively
Create a Study Schedule
Don’t wait until the end of your study period to take CompTIA A+ Practice Tests. Integrate them throughout your preparation:
- Week 1-2: Study foundational concepts, take baseline practice test
- Week 3-4: Deep dive into weak areas, take domain-specific quizzes
- Week 5-6: Complete full-length practice exams weekly
- Week 7-8: Take multiple timed CompTIA A+ Practice Tests, review all incorrect answers
Simulate Real Exam Conditions
When taking full-length CompTIA A+ Practice Tests:
- Set a 90-minute timer and stick to it
- Eliminate distractions (put phone away, close unnecessary tabs)
- Don’t pause or look up answers during the test
- Complete it in one sitting to build stamina
Review Thoroughly
The learning happens during review, not during the test itself:
- Analyze every incorrect answer to understand why you missed it
- Review correct answers to reinforce your reasoning
- Study the explanations for both correct and incorrect options
- Take notes on concepts that confused you
- Revisit related study materials for topics you struggled with
Track Your Progress
Maintain a study log tracking:
- Practice test scores over time
- Performance by exam domain
- Common mistake patterns
- Topics requiring additional review
When you consistently score 85% or higher on multiple full-length CompTIA A+ Practice Tests, you’re likely ready for the actual exam.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Sample Practice Questions
Question 1: Mobile Devices
A technician needs to replace a smartphone battery that is swollen and causing the back cover to separate. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A) Remove the battery and dispose of it in regular trash
B) Power off the device and discontinue use immediately
C) Attempt to discharge the battery completely before removal
D) Press down on the back cover to reseat it properly
Correct Answer: B) Power off the device and discontinue use immediately
Explanation: A swollen battery is a serious safety hazard that can potentially catch fire or explode. The first priority is safety—the device should be powered off immediately and not used until the battery is properly replaced. Never attempt to discharge a swollen battery (C), as this increases the risk of rupture. Swollen batteries must be disposed of properly at designated recycling centers, not in regular trash (A). Pressing on the cover (D) could puncture the battery, causing a dangerous reaction.
Domain: Mobile Devices (1.0)
Question 2: Networking
A user reports that they can access local network resources but cannot browse the internet. The workstation has been assigned the IP address 169.254.100.50. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A) Incorrect subnet mask configuration
B) DHCP server is unavailable
C) DNS server is not responding
D) Default gateway is misconfigured
Correct Answer: B) DHCP server is unavailable
Explanation: The IP address 169.254.x.x is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address, which Windows automatically assigns when it cannot obtain an IP address from a DHCP server. This indicates the DHCP server is down, unreachable, or has exhausted its address pool. While a misconfigured default gateway (D) would prevent internet access, the APIPA address clearly indicates a DHCP failure. DNS issues (C) would typically show different symptoms, and the subnet mask (A) wouldn’t cause an APIPA address assignment.
Domain: Networking (2.0)
Question 3: Hardware
A technician is building a workstation that will be used for video editing with 4K footage. Which of the following components is MOST important to prioritize in the configuration?
A) High-capacity SSD storage
B) Dedicated graphics card with ample VRAM
C) Multi-core processor with high clock speed
D) 32GB or more of RAM
Correct Answer: C) Multi-core processor with high clock speed
Explanation: While all these components are important for video editing, the CPU (processor) is the most critical component for rendering and processing 4K video footage. Video encoding and effects processing are extremely CPU-intensive tasks that benefit significantly from multiple cores and high clock speeds. A dedicated GPU (B) helps with preview rendering and certain effects, high-capacity storage (A) is needed for large video files, and 32GB+ RAM (D) ensures smooth multitasking, but the processor is the primary bottleneck in video editing performance.
Domain: Hardware (3.0)
Question 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
A company wants to implement a cloud solution where they maintain control over their applications and data but rely on a cloud provider for the underlying infrastructure. Which cloud service model should they choose?
A) SaaS (Software as a Service)
B) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
C) PaaS (Platform as a Service)
D) DaaS (Desktop as a Service)
Correct Answer: B) IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
Explanation: IaaS provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, including servers, storage, and networking, while giving the customer full control over operating systems, applications, and data. This matches the requirement of controlling applications and data while the provider manages infrastructure. SaaS (A) provides complete applications managed by the provider. PaaS (C) provides a platform for developing and deploying applications but abstracts more of the infrastructure away. DaaS (D) provides virtual desktop environments as a service.
Domain: Virtualization and Cloud Computing (4.0)
Question 5: Hardware Troubleshooting
A user reports that their laptop screen is very dim and difficult to read, even with brightness settings at maximum. The image is visible when examined closely. Which component has MOST likely failed?
A) LCD panel
B) Inverter or backlight
C) Graphics card
D) Display cable
Correct Answer: B) Inverter or backlight
Explanation: When the screen displays an image but is extremely dim, this is a classic symptom of backlight or inverter failure. The LCD panel is still functioning (producing the image), but the backlight that illuminates it has failed. If the LCD panel itself failed (A), you would see no image or distorted images. A graphics card failure (C) would typically cause no display, artifacts, or system instability. A loose display cable (D) would usually cause flickering, intermittent display, or no display at all, not consistent dimness.
Domain: Hardware and Network Troubleshooting (5.0)
CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Sample Practice Questions
Question 6: Operating Systems
A technician needs to run a legacy application that is only compatible with Windows 7, but the company has standardized on Windows 11. Which Windows feature would allow the application to run?
A) Windows Update
B) Compatibility Mode
C) Safe Mode
D) Virtual Desktop
Correct Answer: B) Compatibility Mode
Explanation: Compatibility Mode allows applications designed for older versions of Windows to run on newer operating systems by emulating the environment of the older OS. Users can right-click the application, select Properties, and choose the Compatibility tab to select which previous Windows version to emulate. Windows Update (A) provides system patches, Safe Mode (C) is a troubleshooting boot option, and Virtual Desktop (D) is a workspace organization feature, none of which address application compatibility.
Domain: Operating Systems (1.0)
Question 7: Security
A company wants to ensure that data on employee laptops remains secure even if the device is lost or stolen. Which of the following security measures would BEST accomplish this?
A) BIOS password
B) Strong user account passwords
C) Full disk encryption
D) Disable USB ports
Correct Answer: C) Full disk encryption
Explanation: Full disk encryption (such as BitLocker on Windows or FileVault on macOS) encrypts all data on the drive, making it unreadable without the proper decryption key or password. Even if someone removes the hard drive and connects it to another computer, the data remains encrypted and inaccessible. A BIOS password (A) can be bypassed by removing the drive, user account passwords (B) protect against unauthorized logins but not physical access to the drive, and disabling USB ports (D) doesn’t protect against drive removal or other access methods.
Domain: Security (2.0)
Question 8: Software Troubleshooting
A user reports that their Windows 11 PC is running extremely slowly, applications take a long time to open, and the hard drive light is constantly active. Task Manager shows memory usage at 95%. What is the MOST likely cause?
A) Failing hard drive
B) Insufficient RAM causing excessive paging
C) CPU overheating
D) Malware infection
Correct Answer: B) Insufficient RAM causing excessive paging
Explanation: When physical RAM is exhausted (95% usage), Windows uses the hard drive as virtual memory (paging file), which is significantly slower than RAM. The constant hard drive activity and slow application performance are classic symptoms of excessive paging due to insufficient RAM. While a failing hard drive (A) causes performance issues, the 95% memory usage is the key indicator here. CPU overheating (C) would typically cause shutdowns or throttling, and while malware (D) can cause slowdowns, the specific combination of high memory usage and constant disk activity points to a RAM shortage.
Domain: Software Troubleshooting (3.0)
Question 9: Operational Procedures
A technician is about to service a laser printer that has recently printed. Which safety procedure should the technician follow?
A) Disconnect the printer from the network first
B) Wear an ESD wrist strap throughout the service
C) Allow the fuser assembly to cool before servicing
D) Remove the toner cartridge immediately
Correct Answer: C) Allow the fuser assembly to cool before servicing
Explanation: The fuser assembly in laser printers operates at extremely high temperatures (around 200°C or 400°F) to melt toner onto paper. After printing, the fuser remains dangerously hot for an extended period and can cause serious burns. Technicians must wait for it to cool completely before servicing. Disconnecting from the network (A) isn’t a safety issue. While ESD protection (B) is important for electronics, thermal burns from the fuser are the immediate safety hazard. Removing the toner cartridge (D) doesn’t address the burn risk from the hot fuser.
Domain: Operational Procedures (4.0)
Question 10: Security Implementation
An organization wants to ensure that only authorized devices can connect to their wireless network. Which security measure should they implement?
A) WPA3 encryption
B) SSID broadcasting disabled
C) MAC address filtering
D) Strong pre-shared key
Correct Answer: C) MAC address filtering
Explanation: MAC address filtering creates a whitelist of approved device MAC addresses that are allowed to connect to the network. Only devices with MAC addresses on the approved list can connect, even if they have the correct password. While WPA3 encryption (A) secures the connection, it doesn’t restrict which devices can connect. Disabling SSID broadcasting (B) provides security through obscurity but doesn’t prevent authorized devices from connecting if they know the SSID. A strong pre-shared key (D) secures the network but doesn’t specifically limit which devices can connect.
Domain: Security (2.0)
Advanced Performance-Based Question Example
Question 11: Network Configuration Scenario
A small office has 5 computers that need to share a cable internet connection. You have been provided with a cable modem, a wireless router, and Cat6 Ethernet cables. Drag and drop the steps in the correct order to set up the network:
Available Steps:
- Connect computers to the router via Ethernet or Wi-Fi
- Configure wireless security settings (WPA3, strong password)
- Connect the cable modem to the WAN port of the router
- Connect the cable modem to the internet service provider’s cable
- Power on the cable modem and wait for it to establish connection
- Configure DHCP settings on the router
- Power on the wireless router
- Test internet connectivity from each computer
Correct Order:
- Connect the cable modem to the internet service provider’s cable (Step 4)
- Power on the cable modem and wait for it to establish connection (Step 5)
- Connect the cable modem to the WAN port of the router (Step 3)
- Power on the wireless router (Step 7)
- Configure wireless security settings (Step 2)
- Configure DHCP settings on the router (Step 6)
- Connect computers to the router via Ethernet or Wi-Fi (Step 1)
- Test internet connectivity from each computer (Step 8)
Explanation: This logical sequence ensures each component is properly connected and configured before moving to the next step. The internet connection must be established at the modem first, then connected to the router, then the router configured for security and IP addressing, and finally devices connected and tested.