Preparing for the CompTIA Tech+ certification can feel overwhelming, but incorporating a CompTIA Tech+ practice test into your study routine is one of the most effective ways to ensure success. Practice tests do more than just assess your knowledge they familiarize you with the exam format, help identify weak areas, and build the confidence you need to pass on your first attempt. Whether you’re transitioning into IT or advancing your technical career, understanding how to leverage practice tests effectively can make all the difference.
The CompTIA Tech+ certification validates foundational IT skills across hardware, software, networking, and troubleshooting. Unlike traditional study methods that focus solely on memorization, a CompTIA Tech+ practice test simulates the actual exam environment, allowing you to experience the pressure and pacing of test day. This hands-on approach helps you develop critical thinking skills and learn to apply concepts rather than simply recall facts. Studies show that candidates who regularly use practice tests score significantly higher than those who rely on reading alone, making this study tool indispensable for serious exam takers.
CompTIA Tech+ Practice Tests | 100+ Free MCQ Questions
Before diving into practice tests, it’s crucial to understand what you’ll face on exam day. The CompTIA Tech+ certification covers five main domains: hardware components and peripherals, software installation and management, networking concepts, security fundamentals, and troubleshooting methodology. Each section requires both theoretical knowledge and practical problem-solving abilities. A well-designed CompTIA Tech+ practice test mirrors this structure, presenting questions in similar proportions to the actual exam. This alignment ensures you’re not caught off guard by the distribution of topics and can allocate your study time appropriately.
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Tech Plus Practice Test
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- Review
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Question 1 of 109
1. Question
Which components in your computer store data? (Choose three.)
Correct
RAM is memory, which is a temporary data storage area. SSD is a type of hard drive, and BD-ROM discs store data as well. PCI is an expansion slot type, and PSU is a power supply unit.
Incorrect
RAM is memory, which is a temporary data storage area. SSD is a type of hard drive, and BD-ROM discs store data as well. PCI is an expansion slot type, and PSU is a power supply unit.
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Question 2 of 109
2. Question
What type of expansion card allows your computer to talk to other computers without wires?
Correct
A network interface card (NIC) lets your computer participate on a network, either wired or wireless. Modems require telephone lines. PSU is a power supply unit, and PCIe is an expansion slot type.
Incorrect
A network interface card (NIC) lets your computer participate on a network, either wired or wireless. Modems require telephone lines. PSU is a power supply unit, and PCIe is an expansion slot type.
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Question 3 of 109
3. Question
Which type of expansion slot provides the fastest data transfer speeds?
Correct
PCIe is the fastest expansion slot standard on the market today. PCI is much older and slower. Of the PCIe slots, PCIe x16 is the fastest. There is no PCIe x64 (not yet anyway).
Incorrect
PCIe is the fastest expansion slot standard on the market today. PCI is much older and slower. Of the PCIe slots, PCIe x16 is the fastest. There is no PCIe x64 (not yet anyway).
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Question 4 of 109
4. Question
Which of the following optical discs will store the most data?
Correct
Blu-ray discs (BD-ROM) store 25 GB per side per layer. That’s far more than DVDs or CDs.
Incorrect
Blu-ray discs (BD-ROM) store 25 GB per side per layer. That’s far more than DVDs or CDs.
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Question 5 of 109
5. Question
Data needs to be stored on a computer and access speed is the most important thing. The data does not need to be persistent. What is the best option for storing this data?
Correct
RAM provides the fastest access to data. It is volatile (not persistent), meaning that when it loses power, all data in RAM is lost. SSDs and HDDs are persistent but slower than RAM. A database would need to be stored on a hard drive.
Incorrect
RAM provides the fastest access to data. It is volatile (not persistent), meaning that when it loses power, all data in RAM is lost. SSDs and HDDs are persistent but slower than RAM. A database would need to be stored on a hard drive.
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Question 6 of 109
6. Question
Your friend Joe wants to add another hard drive to his computer. What should he check to make sure that his system will support it?
Correct
Joe needs to make sure his power supply has a free connector, as well as enough power to supply the drive. Hard drives do not use expansion slots. The CPU and RAM are indifferent to how many hard drives a computer has installed.
Incorrect
Joe needs to make sure his power supply has a free connector, as well as enough power to supply the drive. Hard drives do not use expansion slots. The CPU and RAM are indifferent to how many hard drives a computer has installed.
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Question 7 of 109
7. Question
If a user wants to play live-action video games, which component will they want to upgrade first in their computer?
Correct
For gamers, the graphics processing unit (GPU) on the video card is a critical component. If there is a dedicated video card, the CPU will not be involved in processing video output. The power supply unit (PSU) won’t be relevant unless it can’t support the upgraded video card. NVMe is an SSD storage technology.
Incorrect
For gamers, the graphics processing unit (GPU) on the video card is a critical component. If there is a dedicated video card, the CPU will not be involved in processing video output. The power supply unit (PSU) won’t be relevant unless it can’t support the upgraded video card. NVMe is an SSD storage technology.
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Question 8 of 109
8. Question
You want to upgrade your computer to give it a faster boot time and more space for your files. What should you purchase?
Correct
A solid-state drive (SSD) will provide faster bootup times than a conventional hard disk drive (HDD). Neither RAM nor CPUs provide storage space.
Incorrect
A solid-state drive (SSD) will provide faster bootup times than a conventional hard disk drive (HDD). Neither RAM nor CPUs provide storage space.
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Question 9 of 109
9. Question
If your computer runs low on RAM, what will it use instead?
Correct
Virtual memory is hard drive space used as extra memory if your system runs low on physical memory. It’s slower than physical memory, though.
Incorrect
Virtual memory is hard drive space used as extra memory if your system runs low on physical memory. It’s slower than physical memory, though.
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Question 10 of 109
10. Question
Order the storage unit sizes from largest to smallest.
Correct
From largest to smallest is petabyte (PB), terabyte (TB), gigabyte (GB), megabyte (MB), kilobyte (KB), byte, and bit. In this example, the largest option in the correct answer is terabyte (TB).
Incorrect
From largest to smallest is petabyte (PB), terabyte (TB), gigabyte (GB), megabyte (MB), kilobyte (KB), byte, and bit. In this example, the largest option in the correct answer is terabyte (TB).
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Question 11 of 109
11. Question
When you turn on your computer, it tells you that it does not have the time and date set and asks you to enter setup. What likely needs to be replaced?
Correct
The BIOS stores configuration information such as time and date, but it is powered by the CMOS battery when the system is off. If the CMOS battery fails, the system will no longer retain its BIOS configuration.
Incorrect
The BIOS stores configuration information such as time and date, but it is powered by the CMOS battery when the system is off. If the CMOS battery fails, the system will no longer retain its BIOS configuration.
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Question 12 of 109
12. Question
Monika wants to upgrade the memory in her laptop. What type of memory will she need?
Correct
Monika will definitely need SODIMMs, which are made for laptops. DIMMs are for desktop computers. SODIMMS come in DDR4 and DDR5, so without more information you don’t know which one she needs.
Incorrect
Monika will definitely need SODIMMs, which are made for laptops. DIMMs are for desktop computers. SODIMMS come in DDR4 and DDR5, so without more information you don’t know which one she needs.
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Question 13 of 109
13. Question
How many pins does the power supply connector to the motherboard have?
Correct
The power supply is connected to the motherboard with a 24-pin block connector.
Incorrect
The power supply is connected to the motherboard with a 24-pin block connector.
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Question 14 of 109
14. Question
Which of the following ports was developed by Apple and is found on MacBooks?
Correct
Thunderbolt was developed by Apple in partnership with Intel. eSATA and USB are industry standards but not developed by Apple. There is no Mac Video port.
Incorrect
Thunderbolt was developed by Apple in partnership with Intel. eSATA and USB are industry standards but not developed by Apple. There is no Mac Video port.
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Question 15 of 109
15. Question
If you want to plug in a keyboard, which types of connectors might you use? (Choose two.)
Correct
Keyboards can be plugged into either USB or PS/2 ports. Parallel ports were used for printers, and serial ports were used for modems and older mice.
Incorrect
Keyboards can be plugged into either USB or PS/2 ports. Parallel ports were used for printers, and serial ports were used for modems and older mice.
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Question 16 of 109
16. Question
What is the name of the connector that you are likely to find at the end of a twisted-pair network cable?
Correct
Twisted-pair network cables are terminated with RJ45 connectors. RJ11 is at the end of telephone lines. HDMI is a video connector. There is no TPI connector.
Incorrect
Twisted-pair network cables are terminated with RJ45 connectors. RJ11 is at the end of telephone lines. HDMI is a video connector. There is no TPI connector.
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Question 17 of 109
17. Question
You want to use the video connector with the best resolution. Which one should you pick?
Correct
HDMI is the best video connection standard available today. DVI and VGA video are older standards. HEMI is not a video connector.
Incorrect
HDMI is the best video connection standard available today. DVI and VGA video are older standards. HEMI is not a video connector.
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Question 18 of 109
18. Question
Which of the following connectors provides support for dual 4k displays?
Correct
Thunderbolt is the only connector that currently provides support for two 4k displays. USB provides support for one. DVI is a video standard but does not support 4k. RJ45 is a networking connector.
Incorrect
Thunderbolt is the only connector that currently provides support for two 4k displays. USB provides support for one. DVI is a video standard but does not support 4k. RJ45 is a networking connector.
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Question 19 of 109
19. Question
Which type of printer uses a powdery substance to create images on paper?
Correct
Laser printers use toner, which is an ink-like plastic powder. The toner is held to the paper via weak electrical charges and then melted onto the paper via the printer’s fuser.
Incorrect
Laser printers use toner, which is an ink-like plastic powder. The toner is held to the paper via weak electrical charges and then melted onto the paper via the printer’s fuser.
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Question 20 of 109
20. Question
Rebecca points at a flat square below her keyboard on her laptop and asks what that is. What is it?
Correct
A touchpad is a pointing device similar to a mouse. It’s located on most laptop keyboards just below the keys.
Incorrect
A touchpad is a pointing device similar to a mouse. It’s located on most laptop keyboards just below the keys.
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Question 21 of 109
21. Question
Which of the following are wireless networking technologies? (Choose two.)
Correct
Near-field communication (NFC) and Bluetooth are wireless networking technologies. DVI is a video connection, and RJ45 is a wired Ethernet connector.
Incorrect
Near-field communication (NFC) and Bluetooth are wireless networking technologies. DVI is a video connection, and RJ45 is a wired Ethernet connector.
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Question 22 of 109
22. Question
If you are installing a peripheral device and plug-and-play works as expected, which of the following is true?
Correct
With plug-and-play, you plug the device in, the operating system installs the driver, and the device should work properly. There should be no need for additional steps.
Incorrect
With plug-and-play, you plug the device in, the operating system installs the driver, and the device should work properly. There should be no need for additional steps.
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Question 23 of 109
23. Question
You want to install a device in your office that allows for extra storage and has built-in fault tolerance. Which device do you need?
Correct
The device you are looking for is network attached storage (NAS). External hard drives will give you extra storage, but they do not have built-in fault tolerance.
Incorrect
The device you are looking for is network attached storage (NAS). External hard drives will give you extra storage, but they do not have built-in fault tolerance.
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Question 24 of 109
24. Question
One of your friends asks you if you have any SuperSpeed devices. What type of device is she talking about?
Correct
SuperSpeed is a trade name for USB 3.x, so your friend is talking about USB devices. SSDs are solid-state drives, and eSATA is an older external standard.
Incorrect
SuperSpeed is a trade name for USB 3.x, so your friend is talking about USB devices. SSDs are solid-state drives, and eSATA is an older external standard.
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Question 25 of 109
25. Question
You have a color inkjet printer. What type of ink cartridge does it most likely use?
Correct
Color inkjet printers use cyan, magenta, yellow, and black ink. Those cartridges are called CMYK.
Incorrect
Color inkjet printers use cyan, magenta, yellow, and black ink. Those cartridges are called CMYK.
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Question 26 of 109
26. Question
In your office, you need to set up your computer for a video teleconference with another office. What peripheral do you need to make this work?
Correct
A webcam allows you to record or transmit video, which is needed for a video teleconference.
Incorrect
A webcam allows you to record or transmit video, which is needed for a video teleconference.
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Question 27 of 109
27. Question
Which of the following devices can provide power to a computer in the event of a power outage?
Correct
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) can provide power in the event of a power failure. A PSU is a power supply unit. USB is a connector type, and RF is radio frequency.
Incorrect
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) can provide power in the event of a power failure. A PSU is a power supply unit. USB is a connector type, and RF is radio frequency.
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Question 28 of 109
28. Question
Which of the following connectors does not provide digital video output?
Correct
VGA is the oldest video standard currently used today. It is analog only. DVI can produce analog or digital output, and HDMI and Thunderbolt are both digital.
Incorrect
VGA is the oldest video standard currently used today. It is analog only. DVI can produce analog or digital output, and HDMI and Thunderbolt are both digital.
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Question 29 of 109
29. Question
List the units of throughput from fastest to slowest.
Correct
From fastest to slowest are terabits per second (Tbps), gigabits per second (Gbps), megabits per second (Mbps), kilobits per second (Kbps), and bits per second (bps).
Incorrect
From fastest to slowest are terabits per second (Tbps), gigabits per second (Gbps), megabits per second (Mbps), kilobits per second (Kbps), and bits per second (bps).
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Question 30 of 109
30. Question
You are asked to create a working twisted-pair cable from a bulk roll and some extra connectors. Which device would you use?
Correct
A crimper is used to attach RJ45 connectors to twisted-pair cabling, and a cable tester can test to see if it works. Splicing is connecting two cables to each other. A multimeter is an electrical testing tool but not used to create cables.
Incorrect
A crimper is used to attach RJ45 connectors to twisted-pair cabling, and a cable tester can test to see if it works. Splicing is connecting two cables to each other. A multimeter is an electrical testing tool but not used to create cables.
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Question 31 of 109
31. Question
Which of the following statements is true about DVI connectors?
Correct
DVI connectors are digital in nature, but they are backward-compatible with analog VGA devices.
Incorrect
DVI connectors are digital in nature, but they are backward-compatible with analog VGA devices.
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Question 32 of 109
32. Question
You just installed a printer and want to share it on the network. Where do you perform this task in Windows?
Correct
Printer properties is where sharing is enabled. Printing preferences are tailored to each printer and can set things like quality. The print queue is where print jobs are located.
Incorrect
Printer properties is where sharing is enabled. Printing preferences are tailored to each printer and can set things like quality. The print queue is where print jobs are located.
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Question 33 of 109
33. Question
Robert complains that the cursor on his laptop screen often jumps around unexpectedly when he’s typing. What can he do to solve the problem?
Correct
Disabling the touchpad will keep this problem from happening; it prevents the palm from accidentally moving the cursor while typing.
Incorrect
Disabling the touchpad will keep this problem from happening; it prevents the palm from accidentally moving the cursor while typing.
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Question 34 of 109
34. Question
Using an Android phone, you want to scroll down. What do you do to accomplish this?
Correct
To scroll down you swipe up (you “pull” the page up); swiping down moves the page down. Pinch gestures control zooming.
Incorrect
To scroll down you swipe up (you “pull” the page up); swiping down moves the page down. Pinch gestures control zooming.
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Question 35 of 109
35. Question
For which of the following tasks are gaming consoles not used? (Choose two.)
Correct
Gaming consoles are for gaming and media playback; tasks like editing Word documents or creating spreadsheets are better on a laptop/workstation.
Incorrect
Gaming consoles are for gaming and media playback; tasks like editing Word documents or creating spreadsheets are better on a laptop/workstation.
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Question 36 of 109
36. Question
Which motion while using an iPhone allows you to zoom in on a map?
Correct
To zoom in you use a reverse pinch (separate fingers). Pinch zooms out; taps open items.
Incorrect
To zoom in you use a reverse pinch (separate fingers). Pinch zooms out; taps open items.
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Question 37 of 109
37. Question
You want a device to hold files for several users to access on a network. What type of device do you need?
Correct
That scenario calls for a server (file server) to host files for multiple users on a network.
Incorrect
That scenario calls for a server (file server) to host files for multiple users on a network.
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Question 38 of 109
38. Question
Rachel is using her iPad to view pictures. She turns the iPad 90 degrees and the image turns as well. Which sensor allowed this to happen?
Correct
The gyroscope detects rotational movement and is responsible for the image rotating with the device.
Incorrect
The gyroscope detects rotational movement and is responsible for the image rotating with the device.
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Question 39 of 109
39. Question
Which type of IoT device is used to control the temperature in a home?
Correct
A thermostat is the IoT device commonly used to control home temperature.
Incorrect
A thermostat is the IoT device commonly used to control home temperature.
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Question 40 of 109
40. Question
Francis is trying to change the settings on his iPhone. He opens the Settings app. In order to see them better, he turns his phone 90 degrees but nothing happens. What is the most likely cause?
Correct
Not all apps support screen rotation; the Settings app may not support rotation, so turning the phone won’t rotate the view.
Incorrect
Not all apps support screen rotation; the Settings app may not support rotation, so turning the phone won’t rotate the view.
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Question 41 of 109
41. Question
What is the term used that refers to connecting two Bluetooth devices together for communications?
Correct
Connecting two Bluetooth devices is called pairing.
Incorrect
Connecting two Bluetooth devices is called pairing.
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Question 42 of 109
42. Question
Agi has an iPhone with a biometric scanner enabled. What methods can she use to unlock her phone?
Correct
With biometrics enabled she can unlock using either her fingerprint or her passcode.
Incorrect
With biometrics enabled she can unlock using either her fingerprint or her passcode.
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Question 43 of 109
43. Question
Which of the following is a required hardware device to use augmented reality?
Correct
Augmented reality requires a display to project/overlay the AR visuals; VR headsets are for VR, not required for AR.
Incorrect
Augmented reality requires a display to project/overlay the AR visuals; VR headsets are for VR, not required for AR.
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Question 44 of 109
44. Question
Your friend recently got a new Android phone and comes over to your house. What app does your friend use to set up a Wi- Fi connection with your wireless router?
Correct
On both Android and iOS, Wi-Fi connections are configured from the Settings app.
Incorrect
On both Android and iOS, Wi-Fi connections are configured from the Settings app.
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Question 45 of 109
45. Question
Which one of the following devices is likely to have the least amount of storage space?
Correct
Smartphones are typically the smallest devices and therefore often have the least storage capacity compared with laptops, workstations, and servers.
Incorrect
Smartphones are typically the smallest devices and therefore often have the least storage capacity compared with laptops, workstations, and servers.
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Question 46 of 109
46. Question
You are setting up a new Wi- Fi connection on your Android phone. What step do you take after turning on Wi- Fi?
Correct
After enabling Wi-Fi, the next step is to locate/select the SSID (network name) before entering the password and verifying connectivity.
Incorrect
After enabling Wi-Fi, the next step is to locate/select the SSID (network name) before entering the password and verifying connectivity.
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Question 47 of 109
47. Question
You want to enable backups of your new iPhone. Which two options do you have? (Choose two.)
Correct
iPhones can be backed up to iCloud (cloud) or to a local computer via iTunes.
Incorrect
iPhones can be backed up to iCloud (cloud) or to a local computer via iTunes.
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Question 48 of 109
48. Question
A pacemaker is an example of what type of IoT device?
Correct
A pacemaker is classified as a medical IoT device.
Incorrect
A pacemaker is classified as a medical IoT device.
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Question 49 of 109
49. Question
Which of the following accurately describes what Airplane mode does on an iPhone?
Correct
On iPhone, Airplane mode turns off the cellular connection. (Android may also disable Bluetooth in some versions.)
Incorrect
On iPhone, Airplane mode turns off the cellular connection. (Android may also disable Bluetooth in some versions.)
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Question 50 of 109
50. Question
Which IoT device is typically paired with security systems?
Correct
IP cameras are commonly paired with security systems to capture video for monitoring.
Incorrect
IP cameras are commonly paired with security systems to capture video for monitoring.
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Question 51 of 109
51. Question
You need to find a new productivity app for your Android- based tablet. Where should you look?
Correct
Android apps (including productivity apps) are obtained from the Google Play Store.
Incorrect
Android apps (including productivity apps) are obtained from the Google Play Store.
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Question 52 of 109
52. Question
An Xbox Series X is an example of which type of device?
Correct
An Xbox Series X is a gaming console.
Incorrect
An Xbox Series X is a gaming console.
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Question 53 of 109
53. Question
Rebecca wants to get a copy of the newest game she heard about for her iPad. Where should she go to find and download it?
Correct
iPad apps (and games) are obtained from the Apple App Store / iTunes store on the device.
Incorrect
iPad apps (and games) are obtained from the Apple App Store / iTunes store on the device.
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Question 54 of 109
54. Question
Which of the following is not a function of an operating system?
Correct
The OS manages hardware, software, memory, and acts as an interface. Writing programs is not an OS function.
Incorrect
The OS manages hardware, software, memory, and acts as an interface. Writing programs is not an OS function.
Hint
Think of what the OS does automatically versus what developers do.
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Question 55 of 109
55. Question
Which operating system is most commonly used on Apple desktop and laptop computers?
Correct
macOS is the OS for Apple desktops and laptops. iOS is for mobile devices, Windows and Linux are for PCs and servers.
Incorrect
macOS is the OS for Apple desktops and laptops. iOS is for mobile devices, Windows and Linux are for PCs and servers.
Hint
Think of MacBooks and iMacs.
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Question 56 of 109
56. Question
Which two operating systems are most commonly used on smartphones?
Correct
Most smartphones use either iOS (Apple) or Android (Google). Windows Phone and Blackberry OS are obsolete.
Incorrect
Most smartphones use either iOS (Apple) or Android (Google). Windows Phone and Blackberry OS are obsolete.
Hint
Think about the app stores you see most today.
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Question 57 of 109
57. Question
Peter, a friend of yours, has a piece of software that was written for macOS. Which of the following OSs will that software run on?
Correct
Software written for macOS only runs on macOS unless ported. It won’t run natively on Linux or ChromeOS.
Incorrect
Software written for macOS only runs on macOS unless ported. It won’t run natively on Linux or ChromeOS.
Hint
Think about Apple’s compatibility.
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Question 58 of 109
58. Question
Your friend Michael just purchased a Chromebook and wants to know where his files are stored. What do you tell him?
Correct
Chromebooks primarily store files in the cloud, though local storage exists it’s not the default method.
Incorrect
Chromebooks primarily store files in the cloud, though local storage exists it’s not the default method.
Hint
Think about how Google designed Chromebooks for cloud-first use.
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Question 59 of 109
59. Question
With which of the following file systems can you not rename a file when it’s open?
Correct
On Windows NTFS and macOS APFS, open files are locked from renaming. On Linux ext3/ext4, files can be renamed while open.
Incorrect
On Windows NTFS and macOS APFS, open files are locked from renaming. On Linux ext3/ext4, files can be renamed while open.
Hint
Think of how Windows prevents renaming in-use files.
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Question 60 of 109
60. Question
Which of the following is the default file system for Windows?
Correct
NTFS (New Technology File System) is the default file system used by Windows.
Incorrect
NTFS (New Technology File System) is the default file system used by Windows.
Hint
Think of the format most Windows hard drives are shipped with.
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Question 61 of 109
61. Question
You just deleted a file in Windows. Where does it go first?
Correct
In Windows, deleted files first go to the Recycle Bin unless bypassed with Shift+Delete.
Incorrect
In Windows, deleted files first go to the Recycle Bin unless bypassed with Shift+Delete.
Hint
Think of the safety net before permanent deletion.
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Question 62 of 109
62. Question
Which of the following file extensions indicates a compressed file?
Correct
Compressed archives often use the .zip extension. .txt is text, .exe is executable, .jpg is image.
Incorrect
Compressed archives often use the .zip extension. .txt is text, .exe is executable, .jpg is image.
Hint
Think of the format you “unzip.”
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Question 63 of 109
63. Question
Which of the following are common productivity applications? (Choose two.)
Correct
Word processors and spreadsheets are productivity apps. Games and social media apps are not.
Incorrect
Word processors and spreadsheets are productivity apps. Games and social media apps are not.
Hint
Think of software used for office work.
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Question 64 of 109
64. Question
Which of the following utilities allows you to view running processes in Windows?
Correct
Task Manager lets you view and manage processes, performance, and applications in Windows.
Incorrect
Task Manager lets you view and manage processes, performance, and applications in Windows.
Hint
Think of the tool you open with Ctrl+Shift+Esc.
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Question 65 of 109
65. Question
Which of the following utilities in Windows is used to view the contents of folders and files?
Correct
File Explorer (formerly Windows Explorer) is used to browse files and folders in Windows.
Incorrect
File Explorer (formerly Windows Explorer) is used to browse files and folders in Windows.
Hint
This is the tool you use to open C:\ drive.
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Question 66 of 109
66. Question
Which of the following utilities can be used to manage disks and partitions in Windows? (Choose two.)
Correct
Disk Management and DiskPart are Windows utilities for managing disks and partitions. Task Manager and Device Manager don’t handle partitions.
Incorrect
Disk Management and DiskPart are Windows utilities for managing disks and partitions. Task Manager and Device Manager don’t handle partitions.
Hint
Think of the tools for formatting or resizing drives.
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Question 67 of 109
67. Question
Which Windows utility allows you to uninstall applications?
Correct
Control Panel (Programs and Features) lets you uninstall applications in Windows. Task Manager can stop apps but not uninstall them.
Incorrect
Control Panel (Programs and Features) lets you uninstall applications in Windows. Task Manager can stop apps but not uninstall them.
Hint
Think of the place you go when you want to remove software.
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Question 68 of 109
68. Question
Which of the following utilities allows you to view information about installed hardware devices?
Correct
Device Manager lets you view, configure, and troubleshoot hardware devices in Windows.
Incorrect
Device Manager lets you view, configure, and troubleshoot hardware devices in Windows.
Hint
Think of where you check drivers for your graphics card.
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Question 69 of 109
69. Question
A user calls to tell you that every time he browses the Internet, multiple browser windows keep appearing on his screen even though he has not opened them. In this scenario, what should you do to fix the problem?
Correct
The browser windows the user is getting are known as pop-up windows. Configure a pop-up blocker, which should resolve the problem. If not, it’s possible the computer has malware.
Incorrect
The browser windows the user is getting are known as pop-up windows. Configure a pop-up blocker, which should resolve the problem. If not, it’s possible the computer has malware.
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Question 70 of 109
70. Question
Rose opens her software application and gets a message stating that she has only 16 more uses of the product available. Given this scenario, what is her best course of action to use it more than 16 additional times?
Correct
If a software product is giving you a limited number of uses, you must activate that software with the manufacturer. This typically requires you to have a software license and a product key.
Incorrect
If a software product is giving you a limited number of uses, you must activate that software with the manufacturer. This typically requires you to have a software license and a product key.
-
Question 71 of 109
71. Question
You are visiting a website to order a product, but you keep seeing old information that you know is outdated. Which of the following will most likely fix the problem?
Correct
Web browsers cache information about websites. It’s possible that the browser’s cache is being read instead of the new data on the site. Clear the cache.
Incorrect
Web browsers cache information about websites. It’s possible that the browser’s cache is being read instead of the new data on the site. Clear the cache.
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Question 72 of 109
72. Question
You have just purchased licensed software and want to install it. Which of the following are you required to enter to install this software?
Correct
The product key will be required to install or use any licensed software product. The manufacturer will include this on the installation media or email it to you.
Incorrect
The product key will be required to install or use any licensed software product. The manufacturer will include this on the installation media or email it to you.
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Question 73 of 109
73. Question
You are setting up a technical support help desk for a new app. What type of software should you get to help the technicians fix problems more effectively?
Correct
Remote support software will help the technicians connect to client computers to fix problems easier. Instant messaging and document sharing will probably be helpful as well, but remote support software is the best choice for fixing problems.
Incorrect
Remote support software will help the technicians connect to client computers to fix problems easier. Instant messaging and document sharing will probably be helpful as well, but remote support software is the best choice for fixing problems.
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Question 74 of 109
74. Question
John wants to download a PC-based software package made by Company X. He sees that he can get the software for free from a dozen different websites on the Internet. What advice would you give John?
Correct
The best bet is to always download software from the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) website and not a third-party site. Disabling the pop-up blocker and then downloading from a random site is probably the worst advice possible. If it’s PC-based, the software will not be in the Apple Store.
Incorrect
The best bet is to always download software from the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) website and not a third-party site. Disabling the pop-up blocker and then downloading from a random site is probably the worst advice possible. If it’s PC-based, the software will not be in the Apple Store.
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Question 75 of 109
75. Question
A user wants to have the same browser color scheme, security settings, and favorite website list available from any computer they log in to. What should be enabled?
Correct
A user’s profile contains the color scheme, security settings, and favorites (or bookmarks), so the profile should be set up for synchronization in this case. Bookmarks (or favorites) are links to websites. Accessibility is for ease-of-use enhancements. The browser does need to be compatible for applications, but this isn’t a requirement in this situation.
Incorrect
A user’s profile contains the color scheme, security settings, and favorites (or bookmarks), so the profile should be set up for synchronization in this case. Bookmarks (or favorites) are links to websites. Accessibility is for ease-of-use enhancements. The browser does need to be compatible for applications, but this isn’t a requirement in this situation.
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Question 76 of 109
76. Question
Word processing, spreadsheets, and presentation software are examples of what?
Correct
Word processing, spreadsheets, and presentation software are three examples of productivity software.
Incorrect
Word processing, spreadsheets, and presentation software are three examples of productivity software.
-
Question 77 of 109
77. Question
Which of the following types of software licenses requires the user to pay yearly?
Correct
Subscriptions require the user to pay yearly. Perpetual would incur a one-time charge. There are no proprietary or recurring licenses.
Incorrect
Subscriptions require the user to pay yearly. Perpetual would incur a one-time charge. There are no proprietary or recurring licenses.
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Question 78 of 109
78. Question
What software is designed to let the OS talk to hardware?
Correct
Drivers are designed to let the OS talk to hardware. Each piece of hardware must have a driver to work with the operating system.
Incorrect
Drivers are designed to let the OS talk to hardware. Each piece of hardware must have a driver to work with the operating system.
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Question 79 of 109
79. Question
You need to set up software for five users on a network. They all need to have access to and edit the same Excel files. Which is the best type of software for them to use?
Correct
The users need an online workspace, which will allow them to share files and work with them online.
Incorrect
The users need an online workspace, which will allow them to share files and work with them online.
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Question 80 of 109
80. Question
When thinking of software compatibility, which two factors matter most? (Choose two.)
Correct
The two most important things to consider are if the software was written to work with that operating system and if the computer has enough or the correct hardware to run the application.
Incorrect
The two most important things to consider are if the software was written to work with that operating system and if the computer has enough or the correct hardware to run the application.
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Question 81 of 109
81. Question
You have just plugged in a new HP printer to your Mac. You can’t find a printer driver. What should you do given the circumstances?
Correct
If you’re ever missing a driver, go to the manufacturer’s website to download it and then install it.
Incorrect
If you’re ever missing a driver, go to the manufacturer’s website to download it and then install it.
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Question 82 of 109
82. Question
A company employee has limited eyesight and needs the web browser to be set up with high-contrast colors to make it easier to read. What type of feature is this?
Correct
Accessibility options are those that add ease-of-use features to a web browser, such as for those who have limited eyesight.
Incorrect
Accessibility options are those that add ease-of-use features to a web browser, such as for those who have limited eyesight.
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Question 83 of 109
83. Question
Which of the following is not a configurable web browser feature?
Correct
There is no browser kernel. The kernel is the core of the operating system.
Incorrect
There is no browser kernel. The kernel is the core of the operating system.
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Question 84 of 109
84. Question
You just installed an antivirus program on your laptop computer. Given a scenario in which you want to maintain proper levels of security, how often should you update the software?
Correct
For security software, such as antivirus protection, you should update the definition file at least once per week. Better yet, set the software to update automatically.
Incorrect
For security software, such as antivirus protection, you should update the definition file at least once per week. Better yet, set the software to update automatically.
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Question 85 of 109
85. Question
Which of the following does not require users to pay for the software?
Correct
Open source software is generally free, and users can modify the application if they so choose.
Incorrect
Open source software is generally free, and users can modify the application if they so choose.
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Question 86 of 109
86. Question
Which of the following are examples of interpreted languages? (Choose two.)
Correct
The three classes of interpreted languages are scripting, scripted, and markup languages.
Incorrect
The three classes of interpreted languages are scripting, scripted, and markup languages.
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Question 87 of 109
87. Question
What type of high-level programming language is translated into machine code once and then executed many times?
Correct
Compiled language programs are compiled once and then executed as many times as needed. Scripted, scripting, and markup languages are interpreted languages, which are not compiled with a compiler.
Incorrect
Compiled language programs are compiled once and then executed as many times as needed. Scripted, scripting, and markup languages are interpreted languages, which are not compiled with a compiler.
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Question 88 of 109
88. Question
A programmer wants to write code that directly accesses the computer’s hardware. Which is the best type of language for the programmer to use?
Correct
Assembly is the lowest-level programming language, and it is used when developers want to access computer hardware directly.
Incorrect
Assembly is the lowest-level programming language, and it is used when developers want to access computer hardware directly.
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Question 89 of 109
89. Question
Interpret the following logic. For data input on someone who is 20 years old, which category will they fall into?
If age < 13, then category "Child" else if age < 20, then category "Teen" else if age < 65, then category "Adult" else category "Senior"Correct
The logic says that anyone younger than 20 is a teen, while anyone younger than 65 is an adult. Since this person is 20 exactly, they are in the Adult category.
Incorrect
The logic says that anyone younger than 20 is a teen, while anyone younger than 65 is an adult. Since this person is 20 exactly, they are in the Adult category.
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Question 90 of 109
90. Question
A programmer is writing a program that needs to accept an input of someone’s name. What type of variable should the programmer create?
Correct
A string is a group of characters—technically, zero or more characters, but not having a fixed length.
Incorrect
A string is a group of characters—technically, zero or more characters, but not having a fixed length.
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Question 91 of 109
91. Question
You have an address book for a small business with contact information for about 100 clients. The address book is used by two people. Which solution should you use to store the data?
Correct
For a small number of rows, with only two people accessing the data, a spreadsheet is fine in this situation.
Incorrect
For a small number of rows, with only two people accessing the data, a spreadsheet is fine in this situation.
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Question 92 of 109
92. Question
A database developer is working on generating queries. If the developer needs to ensure that the output of the query has data persistence, to where should the data be written?
Correct
Data persistence means that the data is permanently available. Hard drives store data in a persistent way, so the answer is SSD.
Incorrect
Data persistence means that the data is permanently available. Hard drives store data in a persistent way, so the answer is SSD.
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Question 93 of 109
93. Question
Which of the following consists of columns and rows of numerical or text data?
Correct
A relational database has structured data, which is predictable and organized, with tables containing columns and rows of text or numerical data.
Incorrect
A relational database has structured data, which is predictable and organized, with tables containing columns and rows of text or numerical data.
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Question 94 of 109
94. Question
Joe creates a database. What does he need to do next to make it usable?
Correct
After a database is created, data needs to be imported or inputted.
Incorrect
After a database is created, data needs to be imported or inputted.
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Question 95 of 109
95. Question
A user, Ann, is granted permissions to access a database. What is this an example of?
Correct
Permissions are considered part of data definition.
Incorrect
Permissions are considered part of data definition.
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Question 96 of 109
96. Question
A medical office needs to create a solution to manage patient records. They have about 10,000 patients and eight staff; they want to include notes from medical professionals, emails to and from patients, and images such as x-rays. What should they create?
Correct
With different types of data, including images, the best choice for a database is a nonrelational database such as a document database or a key-value database.
Incorrect
With different types of data, including images, the best choice for a database is a nonrelational database such as a document database or a key-value database.
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Question 97 of 109
97. Question
You have created a relational database. Which of the following elements uniquely identifies a record in the database?
Correct
A primary key is one or more fields whose data is used to uniquely identify a record.
Incorrect
A primary key is one or more fields whose data is used to uniquely identify a record.
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Question 98 of 109
98. Question
Mary, an administrator, creates a field and designates it to hold integer data. Joe, a user, tries to enter his name in the field, but it doesn’t let him save the data. What is this an example of?
Correct
Constraints can be placed on fields such that they will accept only certain types of data. For example, if a field is set to accept only integers, users will not be allowed to enter text data.
Incorrect
Constraints can be placed on fields such that they will accept only certain types of data. For example, if a field is set to accept only integers, users will not be allowed to enter text data.
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Question 99 of 109
99. Question
Rachel, a database administrator, has created a database for her website. It contains pictures of vacations that people have uploaded. In the database, pictures have associated information about who uploaded them and the date. What is this an example of?
Correct
Pictures by themselves would be nonstructured data, but since metadata is included, these pictures are classified as semi-structured data.
Incorrect
Pictures by themselves would be nonstructured data, but since metadata is included, these pictures are classified as semi-structured data.
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Question 100 of 109
100. Question
Peter is accessing a database using a JDBC connection. Which of the following terms best describes the type of access he is using?
Correct
Using a JDBC connection to a database is an example of direct access.
Incorrect
Using a JDBC connection to a database is an example of direct access.
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Question 101 of 109
101. Question
You are configuring a computer to participate on a TCP/IP network. Which of the following are mandatory? (Choose two.)
Correct
For network communications on a TCP/IP network, an IP address and a subnet mask are required. If you want to communicate outside of your network, a default gateway is also required. DHCP servers automatically assign clients IP configuration information.
Incorrect
For network communications on a TCP/IP network, an IP address and a subnet mask are required. If you want to communicate outside of your network, a default gateway is also required. DHCP servers automatically assign clients IP configuration information.
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Question 102 of 109
102. Question
Which one of the following types of network connections can give you the highest data transfer rates?
Correct
DSL and broadband in general, can get up to around 50 Mbps without exploring fiber options. This is faster than a T1 (1,544 Mbps), ISDN (basic rate is 128 Kbps), or cellular (up to 20 Mbps).
Incorrect
DSL and broadband in general, can get up to around 50 Mbps without exploring fiber options. This is faster than a T1 (1,544 Mbps), ISDN (basic rate is 128 Kbps), or cellular (up to 20 Mbps).
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Question 103 of 109
103. Question
You are configuring a wireless network with six computers and no dedicated administrator. Which networking model is most appropriate?
Correct
A small network with no dedicated administrator and no mention of a server is a peer-to-peer network. LAN and WAN are not networking models but are topologies or types of networks.
Incorrect
A small network with no dedicated administrator and no mention of a server is a peer-to-peer network. LAN and WAN are not networking models but are topologies or types of networks.
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Question 104 of 109
104. Question
You have a scenario where you need to disable the guest network on your wireless router. You try to log in, but your password does not work. After several attempts, you realize that you forgot your password. What can you do?
Correct
Wireless routers will have a reset button on their bottom or back. Press and hold the button for about 30 seconds, and the router will reset to factory specifications.
Incorrect
Wireless routers will have a reset button on their bottom or back. Press and hold the button for about 30 seconds, and the router will reset to factory specifications.
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Question 105 of 109
105. Question
Your company has a remote office on a cruise ship that sails across the ocean. Which type of Internet service is likely the best choice?
Correct
For such a connection, a wireless option is needed, so fiber-optic is off the table. Satellite is the best option. Cellular and RF have more limited ranges and would not work in the middle of the ocean.
Incorrect
For such a connection, a wireless option is needed, so fiber-optic is off the table. Satellite is the best option. Cellular and RF have more limited ranges and would not work in the middle of the ocean.
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Question 106 of 109
106. Question
Your friend Maria asks you which router feature helps secure against malicious network traffic. What do you tell her?
Correct
A firewall helps protect networks by blocking potentially dangerous network traffic. A DNS server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DHCP server assigns TCP/IP configuration information. DSL is a type of Internet service.
Incorrect
A firewall helps protect networks by blocking potentially dangerous network traffic. A DNS server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DHCP server assigns TCP/IP configuration information. DSL is a type of Internet service.
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Question 107 of 109
107. Question
Which of the following is true about TCP/IP ports?
Correct
Ports are like channels within TCP/IP that designate which top-level protocol is being used. An IP address is the network address of the host. MAC addresses are hardware addresses built into network cards. Ports are based on protocol, not the networking model.
Incorrect
Ports are like channels within TCP/IP that designate which top-level protocol is being used. An IP address is the network address of the host. MAC addresses are hardware addresses built into network cards. Ports are based on protocol, not the networking model.
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Question 108 of 109
108. Question
Your friend Michael is setting up a wireless network and asks you which security option he should choose to make the network the most secure. What do you suggest?
Correct
WPA3 would be the best choice. However, of the options listed, WPA2 is the most secure wireless security protocol.
Incorrect
WPA3 would be the best choice. However, of the options listed, WPA2 is the most secure wireless security protocol.
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Question 109 of 109
109. Question
Which of the following connectivity options gives you the best mobility?
Correct
Cellular networks give you the best mobility, with a range of up to several miles. Even then, unless you go out of the range of a tower completely, you will be handed over to the next cell tower.
Incorrect
Cellular networks give you the best mobility, with a range of up to several miles. Even then, unless you go out of the range of a tower completely, you will be handed over to the next cell tower.
How to Choose the Right CompTIA Tech+ Practice Test?
Not all practice tests are created equal, and selecting the right one can significantly impact your preparation quality. Look for practice tests that offer detailed explanations for both correct and incorrect answers this transforms each question into a learning opportunity. The best CompTIA Tech+ practice test resources include performance tracking features that highlight your strengths and weaknesses across different domains. Additionally, ensure the practice test reflects the current exam objectives, as CompTIA periodically updates their certifications. Reading reviews from other test-takers can provide valuable insights into which practice tests most accurately represent the real exam experience.
Building Your Study Plan Around Practice Tests
Integrating a CompTIA Tech+ practice test into your study schedule requires strategic planning. Begin by taking a baseline practice test to assess your current knowledge level without prior studying this establishes your starting point. Based on those results, focus your study efforts on weaker areas using textbooks, video courses, or hands-on labs. After dedicated study sessions, take another practice test to measure improvement. This cyclical approach of study-test-review creates a powerful feedback loop that accelerates learning. Most successful candidates take between five and ten full-length practice tests before feeling confident enough to schedule their certification exam.
Common Mistakes to Avoid When Using Practice Tests
While practice tests are invaluable, misusing them can actually hinder your progress. One common mistake is treating the CompTIA Tech+ practice test as a simple memorization tool rather than a learning instrument. Simply retaking the same test repeatedly without understanding why you missed questions leads to false confidence. Another pitfall is taking practice tests too frequently without allowing time for proper study in between. This creates exhaustion and doesn’t give you the opportunity to absorb new information. Finally, avoid practice tests that don’t provide explanations or those that seem significantly easier than official CompTIA materials they may give you unrealistic expectations.
Interpreting Your Practice Test Results
Your CompTIA Tech+ practice test scores tell a story that goes beyond a simple pass or fail. Pay attention to which domains consistently challenge you. these are your priority areas for additional study. If you’re scoring well in networking but struggling with hardware troubleshooting, you know exactly where to focus your energy. Look for patterns in the types of questions you miss: are they scenario-based questions requiring applied knowledge, or straightforward recall questions? This analysis helps you adjust your study methods. Remember that while passing scores on practice tests indicate readiness, aiming for scores well above the passing threshold provides a comfortable margin for test-day nerves.
Time Management Strategies Learned from Practice Tests
One of the most valuable skills you’ll develop through taking a CompTIA Tech+ practice test is effective time management. The actual certification exam is timed, and many candidates find themselves rushing through the final questions. Practice tests teach you to pace yourself appropriately, allocating more time to complex scenario questions while moving quickly through straightforward recall items. Try timing your practice tests to match the actual exam duration, and note if you’re finishing with time to spare or feeling rushed. Adjust your pace accordingly in subsequent practice sessions. Learning to balance speed with accuracy is a skill that only comes through repeated practice under timed conditions.
Leveraging Practice Tests for Retention and Recall
The testing effect the psychological phenomenon where retrieval practice enhances long-term retention makes the CompTIA Tech+ practice test an incredibly powerful learning tool. When you actively recall information to answer a question, you strengthen the neural pathways associated with that knowledge. This is far more effective than passive review methods like re-reading notes. To maximize this effect, space out your practice tests over several weeks rather than cramming them all into a few days. This spaced repetition approach, combined with active recall through practice questions, creates durable memory traces that will serve you well beyond exam day.
Moving from Practice to Certification Success
As you consistently score above the passing threshold on your CompTIA Tech+ practice tests, you’ll know you’re ready for the real exam. Schedule your certification test when you’re performing confidently across all domains, not just your strongest areas. Remember that practice tests, while excellent preparation tools, may not perfectly replicate every aspect of the actual exam. Some questions on test day may surprise you, but the critical thinking skills and problem-solving approaches you’ve developed through practice testing will guide you through. Trust your preparation, manage your time wisely, and approach each question methodically the confidence you’ve built through practice tests will carry you to certification success.
Ready to Test Your Knowledge?
Now that you understand the importance and strategies for using practice tests effectively, it’s time to put your knowledge to the test. The interactive quiz below features questions representative of what you’ll encounter on the CompTIA Tech+ certification exam. Take your time, read each question carefully, and remember that detailed explanations follow each answer. This is your opportunity to identify knowledge gaps and reinforce your understanding of key concepts. Good luck, and remember every practice question brings you one step closer to certification success!
About CompTIA Tech+: The CompTIA Tech+ certification is designed for individuals seeking to establish foundational IT knowledge. It covers essential skills in hardware, software, networking, security, and troubleshooting that are applicable across various technical roles. Whether you’re starting your IT career or looking to validate your existing skills, Tech+ provides the credentials employers recognize and value.
CompTIA Tech+ Practice Test – Sample MCQ Questions
Hardware Components and Peripherals
Question 1
A user reports that their desktop computer will not power on. The power button LED does not light up, and there are no sounds from the system. What should a technician check FIRST?
A) The RAM modules are properly seated
B) The power cable connection and power outlet
C) The BIOS settings
D) The hard drive connections
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Following proper troubleshooting methodology, always start with the simplest and most common issues first. If the power button LED isn’t lighting up and there are no sounds, the system isn’t receiving power at all. Before opening the case, verify external power connections including the power cable to the computer, the power outlet functionality, and any power strip switches. This follows the “Check the obvious first” principle in troubleshooting.
Question 2
Which type of cable uses a 15-pin connector and is commonly used to connect monitors to computers for video transmission?
A) HDMI
B) DisplayPort
C) VGA
D) USB-C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: VGA (Video Graphics Array) cables use a 15-pin D-sub connector, typically colored blue. While VGA is an older analog standard being phased out in favor of digital connections like HDMI and DisplayPort, it’s still found on many legacy systems and is important for Tech+ certification knowledge. HDMI and DisplayPort use different connector types, and USB-C is a versatile connector that can carry video but doesn’t use a 15-pin design.
Question 3
A technician needs to install additional memory in a laptop. What type of RAM is specifically designed for laptop computers?
A) DIMM
B) SO-DIMM
C) RIMM
D) SIMM
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: SO-DIMM (Small Outline Dual In-line Memory Module) is the compact form factor specifically designed for laptops and small form factor computers. Standard DIMMs are too large for laptop chassis and are used in desktop computers. RIMM and SIMM are older memory standards that are no longer in common use. Understanding the different physical form factors of RAM is essential for hardware installation and upgrades.
Question 4
Which component is responsible for converting AC power from the wall outlet to DC power used by computer components?
A) Motherboard
B) Power Supply Unit (PSU)
C) Voltage Regulator
D) Surge Protector
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Power Supply Unit (PSU) converts alternating current (AC) from the wall outlet into the direct current (DC) voltages required by computer components (typically +3.3V, +5V, and +12V). The motherboard distributes this power but doesn’t convert it. Voltage regulators fine-tune voltages for specific components but don’t perform the AC-to-DC conversion. Surge protectors protect against power spikes but don’t convert power types.
Software Installation and Management
Question 5
A user wants to run two different operating systems on the same physical computer without rebooting. Which technology allows this?
A) Dual boot configuration
B) Virtualization
C) Cloud computing
D) Remote desktop
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Virtualization allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical machine using hypervisor software like VMware, VirtualBox, or Hyper-V. Each OS runs in its own virtual machine with allocated resources. Dual boot requires restarting the computer to switch between operating systems. Cloud computing runs applications on remote servers, and remote desktop connects to another physical computer.
Question 6
Which Windows utility allows users to view and manage currently running applications and processes?
A) Device Manager
B) Task Manager
C) Control Panel
D) System Configuration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Task Manager (accessed via Ctrl+Alt+Delete or Ctrl+Shift+Esc) provides real-time information about running applications, processes, CPU usage, memory consumption, and system performance. It also allows users to end unresponsive tasks. Device Manager handles hardware devices, Control Panel provides system settings access, and System Configuration (msconfig) manages startup programs and boot options.
Question 7
A company needs to ensure that only authorized software can run on their computers. Which type of software would help enforce this policy?
A) Antivirus software
B) Application whitelisting
C) Firewall
D) Encryption software
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Application whitelisting allows only pre-approved software applications to execute, blocking all others by default. This approach is more restrictive than blacklisting and provides stronger security control over what runs on corporate systems. Antivirus software detects malware signatures, firewalls control network traffic, and encryption software protects data confidentiality, but none specifically restrict which applications can run.
Question 8
What is the primary purpose of a device driver?
A) To protect the computer from viruses
B) To enable the operating system to communicate with hardware devices
C) To provide cloud storage
D) To compress files for storage
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Device drivers are software components that enable the operating system to communicate with and control hardware devices. They translate generic OS commands into device-specific commands. Without proper drivers, hardware may not function correctly or at all. Keeping drivers updated ensures optimal hardware performance and compatibility with the operating system.
Networking Concepts
Question 9
Which IP address range is reserved for private networks and cannot be routed on the public Internet?
A) 8.8.8.0 to 8.8.8.255
B) 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255
C) 172.0.0.0 to 172.15.255.255
D) 191.255.0.0 to 191.255.255.255
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 range is one of three private IP address ranges defined by RFC 1918. The other private ranges are 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 and 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. These addresses are not routable on the public Internet and are commonly used in home and business networks, with NAT (Network Address Translation) enabling devices to access the Internet.
Question 10
A user cannot access websites by name (www.example.com) but can access them using IP addresses. Which service is most likely experiencing issues?
A) DHCP
B) DNS
C) FTP
D) HTTP
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses. If DNS isn’t working properly, users can’t resolve domain names but can still access websites using their direct IP addresses. DHCP assigns IP addresses automatically, FTP is for file transfer, and HTTP is the web browsing protocol. This scenario specifically points to DNS resolution failure.
Question 11
Which network device operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to forward data?
A) Router
B) Switch
C) Hub
D) Modem
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Switches operate at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and use MAC (Media Access Control) addresses to intelligently forward data only to the intended recipient port. Routers operate at Layer 3 using IP addresses, hubs operate at Layer 1 and broadcast to all ports without intelligence, and modems convert between analog and digital signals for Internet connectivity.
Question 12
What is the maximum recommended length for a Cat5e Ethernet cable to maintain optimal performance?
A) 50 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 150 meters
D) 200 meters
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The maximum recommended length for Ethernet cables (Cat5e, Cat6, Cat6a) is 100 meters (328 feet) for optimal performance. This includes 90 meters of solid cable plus 10 meters for patch cables at both ends. Beyond this length, signal degradation occurs, potentially causing packet loss and reduced network performance. For longer distances, network equipment like switches or repeaters must be used.
Security Fundamentals
Question 13
Which security practice requires users to provide two different types of authentication factors to access a system?
A) Single sign-on
B) Multi-factor authentication
C) Password complexity
D) Account lockout
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requires users to provide two or more authentication factors from different categories: something you know (password), something you have (security token or phone), or something you are (biometric). This significantly increases security because compromising one factor isn’t enough to gain access. Single sign-on is about convenience, while password complexity and account lockout are single-factor security measures.
Question 14
A company wants to protect sensitive data on laptops in case they are lost or stolen. Which security measure would be MOST effective?
A) Strong password policy
B) Full disk encryption
C) Antivirus software
D) Regular backups
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Full disk encryption (such as BitLocker or FileVault) encrypts all data on the hard drive, making it unreadable without the proper decryption key. Even if the laptop is stolen and the hard drive is removed, the data remains protected. Strong passwords can be bypassed by removing the drive, antivirus protects against malware, and backups help with data recovery but don’t prevent unauthorized access to stolen devices.
Question 15
Which type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software to trick users into installing it?
A) Worm
B) Virus
C) Trojan horse
D) Rootkit
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A Trojan horse (or Trojan) is malware that masquerades as legitimate, useful software to deceive users into installing it. Once installed, it can perform malicious actions like stealing data, creating backdoors, or downloading additional malware. Unlike viruses and worms, Trojans don’t replicate themselves. Rootkits hide malicious software at a deep system level but don’t necessarily disguise themselves as legitimate applications initially.
Question 16
What is the primary purpose of a firewall?
A) To detect and remove viruses
B) To encrypt data transmissions
C) To control incoming and outgoing network traffic
D) To create secure backups
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: A firewall monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It acts as a barrier between trusted internal networks and untrusted external networks (like the Internet). Firewalls can be hardware-based, software-based, or both. Antivirus software removes viruses, encryption tools protect data confidentiality, and backup software creates data copies.
Troubleshooting Methodology
Question 17
According to CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology, what is the FIRST step when addressing a technical problem?
A) Test the theory to determine the cause
B) Establish a theory of probable cause
C) Identify the problem
D) Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology follows these steps: (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory, (4) Establish a plan of action, (5) Implement the solution, (6) Verify functionality, and (7) Document findings. Identifying the problem involves gathering information, questioning users, and determining symptoms. Jumping to solutions without properly identifying the problem often leads to wasted time and ineffective troubleshooting.
Question 18
A user reports intermittent network connectivity issues. After implementing a solution, what should the technician do NEXT?
A) Document the findings and solution
B) Verify full system functionality
C) Establish a new theory
D) Close the ticket immediately
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: After implementing a solution, the next step is to verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures if applicable. This ensures the problem is completely resolved and hasn’t created new issues. Only after verification should the technician document findings, actions, and outcomes. Documenting comes before closing the ticket but after verification. This systematic approach ensures quality problem resolution.
Question 19
A technician has implemented a solution that resolved the immediate problem but potentially could affect other systems. What should the technician do?
A) Wait to see if other issues arise
B) Test related systems to ensure no negative impact
C) Document only the main issue that was fixed
D) Immediately move to the next ticket
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: When a solution might affect other systems, best practice requires testing those related systems to ensure no negative impact has occurred. This preventive approach catches secondary issues before they affect users. Waiting for problems to arise is reactive and unprofessional. Complete documentation should include all systems checked and any preventive measures taken. Thorough verification protects system stability and user productivity.
Question 20
A user describes a problem as “the computer is running slow.” What is the BEST approach to gather more specific information?
A) Immediately reinstall the operating system
B) Replace the hard drive with an SSD
C) Ask open-ended questions about when the issue started and what specifically is slow
D) Run a virus scan without asking further questions
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: When a problem is described vaguely, asking open-ended questions helps gather specific, actionable information. Questions might include: When did this start? What specific tasks are slow? Have any changes been made recently? What programs are running? This systematic approach to identifying the problem prevents wasted effort on unnecessary solutions. Implementing solutions before proper diagnosis violates troubleshooting methodology and may not address the actual issue.